A 25-year-old client who had a severe postpartum hemorrhage following the vaginal birth of twins is transferred to the postpartum unit. The nurse knows that assessment for what complication has the highest priority for this client?
Placenta accreta
Hard, painful uterine afterpains.
Postpartum psychosis.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
The Correct Answer is D
A. Placenta accreta: Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall. While this can be a concern, the client in this scenario has already given birth, so this may not be the highest priority at this moment.
B. Hard, painful uterine afterpains: Afterpains are common in the postpartum period, especially in women who have given birth to multiples. While they can be uncomfortable, they are generally expected and not considered a severe complication.
C. Postpartum psychosis: Postpartum psychosis is a serious mental health condition that can occur after childbirth. It is characterized by symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and severe mood disturbances. While it is a serious concern, it might not be the immediate priority in a client who has had a severe postpartum hemorrhage.
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC): This is a life-threatening condition where there is widespread activation of clotting factors, leading to excessive blood clotting followed by bleeding. Given the history of severe postpartum hemorrhage, DIC is a significant concern, and prompt assessment and intervention are crucial.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Cleanse the spinal injection site:
Cleansing the spinal injection site is a routine part of maintaining proper hygiene during and after the administration of spinal anesthesia. However, if the client is experiencing symptoms of a spinal headache, the priority is to prepare for potential interventions by having the necessary equipment ready rather than focusing on the site itself.
B. Apply an abdominal binder:
Applying an abdominal binder is not directly related to addressing a spinal headache. Abdominal binders are typically used for providing support to the abdominal muscles after childbirth or surgery. It wouldn't be the primary intervention for a spinal headache.
C. Insert an indwelling Foley catheter:
Inserting an indwelling Foley catheter is not a direct intervention for addressing a spinal headache. Spinal headaches are related to cerebrospinal fluid leakage and positioning. While managing the patient's overall care is important, it may not be the immediate priority in this context.
D. Place procedure equipment at bedside:
This is the most appropriate action in the context of a postpartal client exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache. Having the necessary procedure equipment, such as materials for a blood patch, ready at the bedside ensures preparedness for potential interventions by the anesthesiologist.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours: Monitoring vital signs is important, especially in a client with eclampsia. However, the frequency of monitoring may need to be increased, particularly if the client's condition is unstable.
B. Keep an airway at the bedside: This is a crucial intervention. Eclampsia can lead to seizures, and having airway management equipment readily available is essential to ensure the client's safety during and after a seizure.
C. Allow liberal family visitation: While family support is important, the priority in eclampsia management is the safety and well-being of the client. Family visitation should be allowed, but it may need to be balanced with the need for a controlled and safe environment.
D. Assess temperature every hour: While monitoring temperature is a part of routine care, it may not be the highest priority in the context of eclampsia. Monitoring for signs of imminent seizure activity and maintaining a safe environment take precedence.
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