A 25-year-old client who had a severe postpartum hemorrhage following the vaginal birth of twins is transferred to the postpartum unit. The nurse knows that assessment for what complication has the highest priority for this client?
Placenta accreta
Hard, painful uterine afterpains.
Postpartum psychosis.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
The Correct Answer is D
A. Placenta accreta: Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall. While this can be a concern, the client in this scenario has already given birth, so this may not be the highest priority at this moment.
B. Hard, painful uterine afterpains: Afterpains are common in the postpartum period, especially in women who have given birth to multiples. While they can be uncomfortable, they are generally expected and not considered a severe complication.
C. Postpartum psychosis: Postpartum psychosis is a serious mental health condition that can occur after childbirth. It is characterized by symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and severe mood disturbances. While it is a serious concern, it might not be the immediate priority in a client who has had a severe postpartum hemorrhage.
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC): This is a life-threatening condition where there is widespread activation of clotting factors, leading to excessive blood clotting followed by bleeding. Given the history of severe postpartum hemorrhage, DIC is a significant concern, and prompt assessment and intervention are crucial.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Determine fetal position by performing Leopold maneuvers:
Leopold maneuvers are used to determine the fetal position and presentation by palpating the mother's abdomen. While this information can be valuable, it's not the highest priority in a situation where there is significant vaginal bleeding.
B. Assess the fetal heart rate and client's contraction pattern:
This is the highest priority because it directly addresses the immediate concern. Monitoring the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern helps to assess the well-being of both the mother and the baby.
C. Confirm Rh and Coombs status for Rho(D) immunoglobulin administration:
While determining Rh status is important, it may not be the immediate priority in this situation. However, if there is a need for Rho(D) immunoglobulin administration, it should be addressed in a timely manner.
D. Perform sterile vaginal examination to determine dilatation:
Performing a sterile vaginal examination is an important aspect of assessing the progress of labor, but it may not be the highest priority when there is significant vaginal bleeding. The focus initially should be on assessing the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Document the findings in the record: Documenting the findings is important, but it doesn't address the potential issue of hypoglycemia.
B. Obtain a heel stick blood glucose level: This is the most appropriate action given the signs presented. A low blood glucose level can be a critical issue in newborns and requires prompt evaluation and management.
C. Place a pulse oximeter on the heel: While oxygen saturation monitoring is valuable in certain situations, it may not be the priority in this case where hypoglycemia is suspected.
D. Swaddle the infant in a warm blanket: While maintaining warmth is important, especially if the baby is hypothermic, addressing the potential hypoglycemia takes precedence.
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