A 25-year-old client who had a severe postpartum hemorrhage following the vaginal birth of twins is transferred to the postpartum unit. The nurse knows that assessment for what complication has the highest priority for this client?

Placenta accreta

Hard, painful uterine afterpains.

Postpartum psychosis.

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Placenta accreta: Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall. While this can be a concern, the client in this scenario has already given birth, so this may not be the highest priority at this moment.

B. Hard, painful uterine afterpains: Afterpains are common in the postpartum period, especially in women who have given birth to multiples. While they can be uncomfortable, they are generally expected and not considered a severe complication.

C. Postpartum psychosis: Postpartum psychosis is a serious mental health condition that can occur after childbirth. It is characterized by symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and severe mood disturbances. While it is a serious concern, it might not be the immediate priority in a client who has had a severe postpartum hemorrhage.

D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC): This is a life-threatening condition where there is widespread activation of clotting factors, leading to excessive blood clotting followed by bleeding. Given the history of severe postpartum hemorrhage, DIC is a significant concern, and prompt assessment and intervention are crucial.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Dilate the pupil so the red reflex can be visualized:
This statement is not accurate regarding the purpose of the eye ointment. The eye ointment is not used to dilate the pupil but serves a different purpose.

B. Prevent herpes infection:
While eye ointment can help prevent certain eye infections, it's not specifically administered to prevent herpes infection.

C. Prevent eye infections:
This is the correct answer. The eye ointment typically contains an antibiotic and is applied to prevent infections, particularly those that could be transmitted during childbirth.

D. Clear the infant's vision:
The eye ointment is not used to clear the infant's vision. Its primary purpose is to prevent infections rather than affect vision.

A. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects. B. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) should be evaluated. C. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading. D. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects:At this point, the AFP result is only an indicator, not a diagnosis. The client has not undergone sufficient diagnostic evaluation (such as ultrasound) to confirm any congenital defect that would warrant intrauterine surgery. Treatment options can only be discussed once a definitive diagnosis has been made.

B. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) should be evaluated:While a repeat AFP test could be done in some cases to rule out lab error or confirm the result, this is not typically the immediate next step. An ultrasound provides more definitive and comprehensive information than simply repeating the AFP test.

C. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading:Providing false reassurance may lead to misunderstandings. While false positives can happen, it's crucial to follow up with further assessments to ensure the accuracy of the results.

D. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results:An elevated AFP level is a screening test, not a definitive diagnosis. A sonogram (ultrasound) is the next step to obtain more detailed information about the fetus. Ultrasound can help assess for neural tube defects, confirm gestational age, and check for other anomalies that could explain the elevated AFP levels. This provides the most accurate and non-invasive method for evaluating potential fetal abnormalities.

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A 25-year-old client who had a severe postpartum hemorrhage following the vaginal birth of twins is transferred to the postpartum unit. The nurse knows that assessment for what complication has the highest priority for this client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A father watching the admission of his newborn to the nursery notices that eye ointment is placed in the infant's eyes. He asks the nurse what is the purpose of the ointment. The nurse would be correct in stating that the purpose for using the ointment is to

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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