A 27 year old female patient is exploring contraception options. On assessment the nurse notes that the patient reports difficulty taking medication on time with previous prescriptions. Based on the history gathered, which is most appropriate option for the nurse to discuss with the patient?
Tubal ligation. This surgical procedure will ensure that you are unable to get pregnant
Emergency contraceptives. Keep a ready supply in your cabinet to use whenever you have unprotected sex
Oral contraceptives. They are a once daily pill that should be taken at the same time every day to be most effective.
Transdermal contraceptive patch. These are changed once weekly, minimizing the need to remember a pill everyday:
The Correct Answer is D
A. Tubal ligation. This surgical procedure will ensure that you are unable to get pregnant: Tubal ligation is a permanent, invasive procedure. For a patient still exploring contraception options, this may not be appropriate due to its irreversibility and the need for surgical intervention.
B. Emergency contraceptives. Keep a ready supply in your cabinet to use whenever you have unprotected sex: Emergency contraception is intended for occasional, post-coital use, not routine birth control. It is less effective for regular prevention and is not suitable as a primary method.
C. Oral contraceptives. They are a once daily pill that should be taken at the same time every day to be most effective: Oral contraceptives require strict daily adherence. Since the patient reports difficulty taking medications on time, this option may lead to reduced effectiveness and unintended pregnancy.
D. Transdermal contraceptive patch. These are changed once weekly, minimizing the need to remember a pill every day: The patch provides consistent hormone delivery with weekly administration, reducing the risk of missed doses. It aligns well with the patient’s history of difficulty maintaining daily medication adherence, making it a practical and effective option.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Document the adverse reaction in the patient’s chart:Documentation is important for legal and clinical records but is not the immediate priorityin a life-threatening situation. Patient safety comes first.
B. Assess the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation:Facial swelling and difficulty breathing indicate a potential anaphylactic reaction, which can be rapidly fatal. The nurse must first assess and maintain airway patency, oxygenation, and circulation before taking other actions.
C. Notify the provider immediately:Notifying the provider is necessary, but the nurse must first ensure the patient’s airway and vital functions are stable. Immediate intervention can be lifesaving.
D. Administer another dose of the medication to counteract the adverse reaction:Administering another dose would worsen the reaction. The priority is halting exposureand initiating emergency treatment, such as epinephrine if indicated.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The client is diaphoretic:Diaphoresis often indicates pain, stress, or sympathetic nervous system activation. Sweating after opioid administration may suggest inadequate pain relief or other complications, not pain reduction.
B. The client has an elevated blood pressure:Elevated blood pressure can result from pain, anxiety, or sympathetic stimulation. A rise in blood pressure after opioid administration may indicate ongoing pain rather than relief.
C. The client has an increased respiratory rate:Opioids typically cause respiratory depression. An increased respiratory rate may suggest pain, anxiety, or other physiologic stress rather than effective analgesia.
D. The client is asleep:Sleep or a relaxed state following opioid administration generally indicates adequate pain control. Opioids reduce pain perception and promote comfort, allowing the client to rest, which reflects effective analgesia.
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