A 28-year-old woman is referred to the PMHNP with symptoms of hypomania following the birth of her first child. Which of the following statements about postpartum hypomania is correct?
It is more common in multiparous women
It occurs in less than 1% of postpartum women
It is a risk factor for postpartum depression
It tends to occur late in the postpartum period
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Postpartum hypomania can occur in both primiparous and multiparous women; it is not limited to those with multiple births.
Choice B reason: Postpartum hypomania is relatively common, with higher rates reported than 1%, making this incorrect.
Choice C reason: Postpartum hypomania often precedes or predicts postpartum depression and is considered a risk factor for its development.
Choice D reason: It typically occurs early in the postpartum period, not late, often within the first few days after delivery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: While liver function tests are sometimes monitored, lithium is primarily excreted renally, making creatinine more critical than liver function tests for baseline evaluation.
Choice B reason: Liver function tests alone are insufficient; kidney function must be assessed because lithium can cause nephrotoxicity.
Choice C reason: A complete blood count is not required prior to initiating lithium; the focus is on renal and thyroid function and pregnancy status.
Choice D reason: Baseline thyroid function is essential because lithium can affect thyroid activity. Creatinine assesses renal function since lithium is renally excreted. A pregnancy test is important due to potential teratogenic effects during pregnancy.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Acetaminophen is not known to exacerbate mania and can be safely continued for mild pain management.
Choice B reason: Sam-E is a supplement that can have serotonergic activity and potentially precipitate mania in susceptible individuals, but it is not the primary agent of concern compared with bupropion in acute manic presentations.
Choice C reason: Bupropion is an activating antidepressant that can precipitate or worsen manic episodes in individuals with bipolar disorder. Immediate discontinuation is indicated to prevent further exacerbation of mania.
Choice D reason: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used for agitation or anxiety and does not contribute to manic symptoms; it may provide symptomatic relief and can be continued as needed.
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