A 32-year-old client at 28 weeks gestation has a 1-hour glucose of 160 mg/dL. What is the next step?
Repeat 1-hour test
Start insulin
Order 3-hour glucose tolerance test
Diagnose gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)
The Correct Answer is C
A 1-hour glucose challenge test (GCT) with a value of 160 mg/dL exceeds the standard screening threshold (usually 130-140 mg/dL). This "positive" screen indicates impaired glucose handling but is not diagnostic of gestational diabetes on its own. A confirmatory multi-step tolerance test is required to evaluate insulin response over time.
A. Repeat 1-hour test: Repeating the screening test is not clinically useful as it has already identified the need for further diagnostic workup. The 1-hour test is a non-fasting screen designed for high sensitivity. Progression to a more specific diagnostic test is the standard of care.
B. Start insulin: Insulin therapy is only initiated after a definitive diagnosis of GDM is made and lifestyle modifications have failed to maintain euglycemia. Starting insulin based on a single screening value would be premature and potentially cause iatrogenic hypoglycemia. Diagnosis must be confirmed first.
C. Order 3-hour glucose tolerance test: The 3-hour GTT is the definitive diagnostic procedure, requiring the client to fast and undergo four separate blood glucose draws. If two or more values are elevated, the diagnosis of gestational diabetes is confirmed. It provides a detailed metabolic profile.
D. Diagnose gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM): A single 1-hour value of 160 mg/dL is insufficient for a formal diagnosis. Only extremely high values (e.g., > 200 mg/dL) may allow for a direct diagnosis in some protocols. Most cases require the 3-hour fasting test to ensure diagnostic accuracy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Cervical insufficiency involves the premature, painless dilation of the cervix, typically during the second trimester. The etiology is linked to structural weaknesses in the cervical stroma or collagen defects that prevent the cervix from remaining closed under the weight of the growing fetus. This often leads to spontaneous abortion or preterm delivery.
A. Cervical insufficiency: The hallmark of this condition is dilation occurring without the presence of painful uterine contractions. It is frequently diagnosed after a history of mid-trimester losses. Management typically involves the surgical placement of a cervical cerclage to provide mechanical support.
B. Placenta previa: This condition occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the internal cervical os. While it can cause painless vaginal bleeding, it does not typically cause premature cervical dilation at 20 weeks. It is diagnosed via ultrasonography rather than physical dilation findings.
C. Ectopic pregnancy: An ectopic pregnancy implants outside the uterus and almost always presents with pain and bleeding in the first trimester. By 20 weeks, an untreated ectopic pregnancy would have already ruptured, causing hemorrhagic shock. It does not involve the cervix dilating painlessly.
D. Preterm labor: Labor is defined by regular, painful uterine contractions that result in cervical change. Because the question specifies the dilation is painless, labor is ruled out as the primary diagnosis. True labor requires the expulsive force of myometrial contractions to open the cervix.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Epidural anesthesia involves the administration of local anesthetics into the extradural space to induce regional analgesia. It causes a predictable motor blockade by inhibiting nerve impulse transmission along the spinal nerve roots. Monitoring for sensory and motor deficits is a standard clinical requirement for patient safety.
A. Increase stimulation: Attempting to heighten sensory input is ineffective because the neural pathways are chemically interrupted by the anesthetic agent. Forcing sensation through vigorous stimuli does not reverse the blockade and may cause skin irritation. This action does not address the primary safety risk of impaired mobility.
B. Implement fall precautions: Loss of lower extremity sensation and motor control creates a high risk for mechanical trauma during transfers or positional changes. Ensuring the side rails are up and providing assistance with movement are necessary to maintain physical integrity. This is the highest priority when a patient’s proprioception is compromised.
C. Encourage walking: Ambulation is strictly contraindicated until the motor block has completely dissipated and the patient demonstrates adequate muscle strength. Attempting to walk while legs are numb leads to immediate falls and potential fractures. Safety protocols require a successful sensory-motor assessment prior to any weight-bearing activity.
D. Remove epidural: Temporary loss of sensation is an expected pharmacological effect of the procedure and does not necessarily warrant premature discontinuation. The nurse should monitor the level of the block rather than removing the catheter without a specific medical order. Management focuses on injury prevention until the drug is metabolized.
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