A 55-year-old patient presents with aortic regurgitation. Which of the following conditions is most likely to contribute to the development of this type of valvular disorder?
Left ventricular hypertrophy
Bicuspid aortic valve
Mitral valve prolapse
Atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries
The Correct Answer is B
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy is typically a secondary compensatory response to the volume overload caused by chronic aortic regurgitation rather than the primary cause. The heart muscle thickens to maintain stroke volume in the face of blood leaking back into the ventricle. While hypertrophy is a clinical finding, it does not initiate the valvular incompetence itself.
B. A bicuspid aortic valve is a common congenital abnormality where the valve has 2 leaflets instead of 3, making it prone to premature wear and insufficiency. Over time, the structural asymmetry leads to abnormal hemodynamic stress, resulting in the failure of the leaflets to coapt properly. This is a leading cause of primary aortic regurgitation in adults.
C. Mitral valve prolapse is a common valvular disorder where the mitral leaflets bulge into the left atrium during systole, potentially causing mitral regurgitation. However, this pathology is anatomically confined to the mitral valve and does not directly cause or contribute to aortic valve dysfunction. Each valve operates under different pressure gradients and structural requirements.
D. Atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries causes ischemic heart disease and myocardial infarction but does not directly damage the aortic valve leaflets. While it shares common risk factors with calcific aortic stenosis, it is not a primary mechanism for aortic regurgitation. Regurgitation usually stems from root dilation or intrinsic leaflet damage rather than coronary plaque.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-agonist used strictly for the long-term maintenance and prophylaxis of bronchospasm in chronic asthma or COPD. It possesses a delayed onset of action and does not provide the immediate smooth muscle relaxation required during a life-threatening acute exacerbation. Using a LABA as a rescue medication is contraindicated because it cannot rapidly reverse the acute narrowing of the airways.
B. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that provides anti-inflammatory benefits by inhibiting the late-phase response to allergens and exercise. It is an oral maintenance medication that requires daily administration to achieve therapeutic levels in the systemic circulation. It has no direct bronchodilatory effect and is therefore entirely ineffective for the immediate management of an acute, symptomatic asthma attack in an emergency.
C. Ipratropium bromide is an anticholinergic agent that provides bronchodilation by blocking muscarinic receptors in the large airways. While it is frequently used in combination with beta-agonists for severe asthma exacerbations, it is not considered the stand-alone first-line therapy. Its onset of action is generally slower than that of beta-agonists, making it an adjunctive rather than a primary rescue medication in most clinical protocols.
D. Inhaled short-acting beta-agonists, such as albuterol, are the first-line treatment for acute asthma due to their rapid onset within minutes. These medications bind to beta-2 adrenergic receptors on pulmonary smooth muscle cells, increasing intracellular cyclic AMP and causing immediate muscle relaxation. This swift physiological reversal of bronchoconstriction is essential for increasing airflow and resolving the acute respiratory distress associated with an asthma flare.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Elevated levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH): While renal failure does lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, this is a compensatory response to low serum calcium, not the direct systemic consequence of the vitamin deficiency itself. The PTH rise is the body's attempt to restore homeostasis. The question asks for the direct physiological consequence on the body's structural or metabolic state resulting from the lack of calcitriol.
B. Enhanced excretion of phosphate by the kidneys: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys actually lose the ability to excrete phosphate, leading to hyperphosphatemia. Decreased vitamin D levels do not improve phosphate clearance; rather, the metabolic environment worsens as phosphate binds to any available calcium. This reciprocal relationship further depresses serum calcium levels and exacerbates the underlying bone disease and mineral imbalances.
C. Impaired bone mineralization and increased risk of fractures: The kidneys convert vitamin D into its active form, calcitriol, which is essential for the intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus. A deficiency in calcitriol leads to systemic hypocalcemia, which forces the body to resorb minerals from the skeletal system. This chronic demineralization results in renal osteodystrophy, characterized by weakened bone matrix and high fracture susceptibility.
D. Increased absorption of calcium from the intestine: This is the opposite of what occurs when renal vitamin D production decreases. Active vitamin D is the primary hormonal signal that tells the intestinal mucosa to transport calcium into the bloodstream. Without it, dietary calcium cannot be effectively absorbed regardless of intake. Consequently, the body suffers from a persistent deficit of circulating ionized calcium.
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