A client arrives in the Emergency Department with multiple crushing wounds of the chest, abdomen and legs. The assessments that assume the greatest priority are
quality of respirations and presence of central pulses.
abdominal contusions and other wounds.
level of consciousness and pupil size.
pain and deformities in the lower extremities.
The Correct Answer is A
A. quality of respirations and presence of central pulses: Airway, breathing, and circulation are the top priorities in trauma care. Ensuring adequate oxygenation and perfusion takes precedence over other injuries, as compromise in these areas can quickly become life-threatening.
B. abdominal contusions and other wounds: While important to assess for internal bleeding or organ injury, these are secondary to securing airway, breathing, and circulation in the initial assessment.
C. level of consciousness and pupil size: Neurological assessment is essential but comes after ensuring the client’s vital functions are stabilized. Changes in mental status may follow hypotension or hypoxia, so primary stabilization must occur first.
D. pain and deformities in the lower extremities: Pain management and extremity assessment are important but are lower priority compared with life-threatening issues such as impaired breathing or absent central pulses.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. IV administration of epinephrine: Epinephrine is part of advanced cardiac life support for pulseless rhythms, but medication administration is secondary to establishing circulation through defibrillation in shockable rhythms. Immediate electrical therapy takes priority to restore a perfusing rhythm.
B. IV administration of vasopressin: Vasopressin may be used as an alternative to epinephrine in certain ACLS protocols, but it does not replace the need for immediate defibrillation in pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Delaying defibrillation for medications can decrease survival chances.
C. Immediate cardioversion: Cardioversion is synchronized and intended for unstable tachyarrhythmias in clients with a pulse. In a pulseless patient or one in ventricular fibrillation, synchronized cardioversion is not appropriate and would delay life-saving defibrillation.
D. Immediate defibrillation: Defibrillation is the priority for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Delivering an unsynchronized shock as quickly as possible maximizes the chance of restoring a perfusing rhythm and is the most time-sensitive intervention in this scenario.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Dyskinesia: Long-term use of levodopa/carbidopa commonly leads to involuntary movements, such as chorea, tremors, or dystonia, known as dyskinesias. These side effects often appear after several years of therapy as the brain’s dopaminergic receptors become more sensitive and fluctuate with medication levels.
B. Pruritus: Itching is not a common side effect of levodopa/carbidopa. While allergic reactions can occur with any medication, pruritus is not typically associated with this therapy.
C. Tinnitus: Ringing in the ears is not commonly seen with levodopa/carbidopa use. Tinnitus is more often related to ototoxic medications or underlying ear conditions.
D. Diarrhea: Gastrointestinal upset can occur with many medications, but chronic diarrhea is not a typical side effect of levodopa/carbidopa. Nausea or vomiting is more frequently observed, especially early in treatment.
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