A client asks about sterilization. Which statement is correct?
It prevents STIS
It is permanent.
It is reversible.
It is temporary.
The Correct Answer is B
Sterilization procedures, such as tubal ligation or vasectomy, involve the permanent surgical disruption of the fallopian tubes or vas deferens. These methods prevent the union of sperm and ovum, thereby providing highly effective long-term contraception. These procedures are considered irreversible for counseling purposes due to low successful reconnection rates.
A. It prevents STIS: Sterilization provides no protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) such as HIV or syphilis. It is purely a mechanical barrier to conception, not a barrier to pathogens. Only barrier methods like condoms are effective at reducing the risk of disease transmission.
B. It is permanent: Sterilization is intended for individuals who have completed their childbearing and desire a final contraceptive solution. While surgical "reversals" exist, they are technically difficult, expensive, and frequently fail to restore functional fertility. It is the most reliable permanent method of birth control.
C. It is reversible: Labeling sterilization as reversible is clinically inaccurate and misleading to the patient. Patients must be counseled that the procedure is intended to be final. Relying on reversal procedures for future fertility is highly risky and often leads to ectopic pregnancy if successful.
D. It is temporary: Temporary methods of contraception include hormonal pills, injections, and intrauterine devices, which can be discontinued to allow for the return of fertility. Sterilization does not have an "expiry date" or a way to be easily turned off. It is a definitive surgical intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Hydatidiform mole, a type of gestational trophoblastic disease, arises from abnormal fertilization resulting in a non-viable pregnancy with overproliferating trophoblasts. This condition leads to hydropic vesicles that fill the uterus, causing rapid expansion beyond normal dates. High serum hCG levels often exceed 100,000 mIU/mL, causing severe hyperemesis.
A. Cervical insufficiency: This condition involves painless cervical dilation during the second trimester, often leading to preterm birth or pregnancy loss. It does not cause an increase in uterine size; rather, the uterus remains appropriate for gestational age until the fetus is expelled. Uterine enlargement is primarily driven by the internal products of conception.
B. Molar pregnancy: Pathological proliferation of placental tissue creates a "snowstorm" appearance on ultrasound, where the uterus is consistently larger than the calculated gestational age. The excessive trophoblastic growth and fluid-filled cysts expand the uterine cavity rapidly. This classic sign helps distinguish it from normal singleton or even multifetal pregnancies.
C. Spontaneous abortion: During a miscarriage, uterine size may actually be smaller than expected due to the loss of amniotic fluid or the partial expulsion of the gestational sac. It typically presents with vaginal bleeding and pelvic cramping. Uterine growth ceases once the pregnancy is no longer viable or the fetus is lost.
D. Ectopic pregnancy: Implantation occurs outside the uterine cavity, most commonly in the fallopian tubes, meaning the uterus does not enlarge significantly. While the uterus might thicken slightly due to hormonal changes, it will not measure larger than expected dates. An empty uterus on ultrasound with a positive pregnancy test is diagnostic.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Gestational diabetes results from placental hormones like human placental lactogen inducing maternal insulin resistance. Management aims to maintain euglycemia to prevent fetal macrosomia and neonatal hypoglycemia. The initial approach focuses on stabilizing postprandial glucose levels through lifestyle and behavioral modifications.
A. Diet modification: Controlling the intake of complex carbohydrates and spreading caloric consumption throughout the day often successfully manages blood sugar levels. Most women can achieve glycemic targets without pharmacological assistance. It is the established standard of care for initial GDM management.
B. Insulin: Pharmacological intervention with insulin is only initiated if nutritional therapy and exercise fail to meet glycemic goals. While highly effective, it requires intensive training and carries a risk of hypoglycemia. It is a second-line treatment rather than the primary starting point.
C. Steroids: Corticosteroids are used to promote fetal lung maturity in cases of threatened preterm labor but actually worsen hyperglycemia by increasing insulin resistance. They are contraindicated as a treatment for GDM. Administering steroids would cause a dangerous rise in maternal glucose levels.
D. Surgery: There is no surgical procedure used to treat or manage the metabolic dysfunction of gestational diabetes. Management is strictly medical and nutritional during the pregnancy. Postpartum, the condition usually resolves spontaneously after the delivery of the placenta.
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