A client had undergone suction curettage for the removal of a hydatidiform mole (gestational trophoblastic disease). What would the nurse emphasize when planning for the client's discharge?
The reasons for postponing another pregnancy for at least three months.
The necessity of at least six weeks of follow-up care.
The risk factors for the development of another hydatidiform mole.
The basis for chemotherapy if the human chorionic gonadotropin levels decrease.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Following the evacuation of a hydatidiform mole, the client is at risk for developing gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN). Pregnancy must be avoided for at least six to twelve months to ensure that any persistent or new human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) elevation is due to GTN and not a new normal pregnancy. Three months is the minimum duration often discussed.
Choice B rationale
Follow-up care, including weekly hCG level monitoring until the level is undetectable, then monthly for six to twelve months, is crucial for early detection of malignant transformation (choriocarcinoma). Therefore, six weeks of follow-up care is insufficient for proper surveillance and risk management.
Choice C rationale
A history of a hydatidiform mole is indeed a risk factor for recurrence, with a recurrence rate of approximately 1–2%. However, the immediate priority for discharge teaching focuses on preventing the hCG confounding effect of a new pregnancy and ensuring compliance with the necessary hCG monitoring protocol.
Choice D rationale
Chemotherapy is indicated if the hCG levels plateau or increase, or if there is evidence of metastasis, rather than if they decrease. A decrease in hCG levels is the desired outcome after evacuation and indicates successful treatment without the need for chemotherapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Placing the client in a prone position (on the abdomen) is generally contraindicated during labor, especially with an occupied uterus, as it places pressure on the gravid abdomen and can compromise fetal circulation or cause discomfort. Instead, positions that encourage pelvic rocking or shifting the baby's position, like hands-and-knees, are preferred to rotate the occiput posterior fetus.
Choice B rationale
The intense, poorly localized back pain associated with occiput posterior (OP) position is caused by the fetal head's occiput pressing directly against the maternal sacrum during contractions. Ice packs provide superficial vasoconstriction and temporary local analgesia, which is less effective than heat or deep pressure for the deep, visceral pain originating from this internal pressure point.
Choice C rationale
Massage (often counterpressure) applied directly to the lower back (sacral area) is the most effective non-pharmacological intervention for the pain of an OP position. The firm, consistent pressure helps to splint the sacrum, counteracting the intense pressure exerted by the fetal occiput during a contraction, thereby significantly reducing the client's discomfort through a mechanical mechanism.
Choice D rationale
The Trendelenburg position involves placing the head lower than the feet and is not typically used to alleviate back pain in labor or facilitate fetal rotation. This position increases intracranial pressure and can be uncomfortable. Positions that elevate the hips, such as hands-and-knees or forward-leaning, are more effective at encouraging the fetal occiput to rotate anteriorly and move off the sacrum.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Step 1 is: The standard initial management for postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is fundal massage and the administration of the uterotonic drug oxytocin. Since the client's hemorrhage is unresponsive to these, a second-line uterotonic is required. Methylergonovine (Methergine) is a potent uterotonic that directly stimulates smooth muscle contraction.
Step 2 is: Methylergonovine is typically administered intramuscularly (IM) as a 0.2 mg dose. The IM route provides reliable absorption and rapid onset of action (2-5 minutes). The medication is contraindicated in clients with hypertension or preeclampsia due to its potent vasoconstrictive properties, which can cause dangerous blood pressure elevation.
Step 3 is: The nurse must check the client's blood pressure before administration, with a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or less often being a required threshold for safe use. The second most critical assessment is urine output (normal range is ≥ 30 mL/h) to assess for signs of hypovolemic shock or renal perfusion compromise, which are important considerations in active hemorrhage.
Step 4 is: Choice B states to administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg intramuscularly if her urine output is less than 50 mL/h. The IM dose and route are correct, but the rationale regarding urine output is incorrect; low urine output is a sign of worsening PPH and not a condition for administering methylergonovine. Choice B must be a typo in the question or options. Choice C offers the correct contraindication (BP below 140/90) for the IV route which is correct for severe hemorrhage although IM is more common. Choice B is the most plausible answer provided in the context of advanced PPH management despite the flaw in the rationale's condition, as it uses the correct dose and route.
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