A client has been ordered a fentanyl patch for chronic pain. What client teaching should be provided to the client and family upon discharge?
Apply it to the chest only
Remove it daily and clean skin
Apply it for breakthrough pain
Remove the patch every 3 days.
The Correct Answer is D
Transdermal opioid therapy using agents such as Fentanyl is commonly used for the management of chronic, severe pain requiring continuous opioid delivery. The patch provides steady systemic absorption over a prolonged period, avoiding peaks and troughs associated with oral dosing. Safe use requires strict adherence to dosing intervals, proper application techniques, and avoidance of misuse. Patient and family education is essential to prevent overdose, withdrawal, or inadequate pain control.
Rationale:
A. Applying the patch to the chest only is incorrect because fentanyl patches can be applied to multiple flat, non-irritated, hairless areas of the upper body or upper arm. Rotating application sites helps prevent skin irritation and ensures consistent absorption. Restricting application to only the chest unnecessarily limits appropriate use.
B. Removing the patch daily and cleaning the skin is incorrect because fentanyl patches are designed for extended-release over 72 hours. Daily removal would prevent adequate drug delivery and result in uncontrolled pain. Skin should be cleaned before application, but the patch should remain in place for the full prescribed duration.
C. Applying it for breakthrough pain is incorrect because transdermal fentanyl is intended for continuous baseline pain control, not acute or breakthrough pain episodes. Breakthrough pain requires short-acting analgesics for rapid relief. Using the patch in this way can lead to delayed onset of action and potential overdose risk.
D. The fentanyl patch is typically replaced every 72 hours (every 3 days), ensuring continuous and stable analgesia. This dosing schedule maintains therapeutic drug levels while minimizing fluctuations. Proper adherence to this interval is essential for safe and effective long-term pain management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Acute manic episodes, especially first-time presentations of euphoric mania, are commonly managed with mood stabilizers that target dysregulated neurotransmission in bipolar disorder. Bipolar disorder involves cycles of mania and depression due to imbalances in neurotransmitters such as dopamine and norepinephrine. In acute mania, treatment focuses on rapid mood stabilization, reducing agitation, and preventing harm. Long-term management also aims to prevent recurrence of manic and depressive episodes.
Rationale:
A. Lithium is the gold-standard mood stabilizer for acute mania and long-term maintenance therapy in bipolar disorder. It helps reduce manic symptoms by modulating neurotransmitter activity and second messenger systems in the brain. Lithium is especially indicated in classic euphoric mania and reduces suicide risk in bipolar patients.
B. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic effective in controlling acute agitation and psychotic features of mania. However, it is often used as adjunct therapy rather than first-line monotherapy for classic euphoric mania requiring long-term mood stabilization. It may be combined with mood stabilizers but is not the primary initial choice in this presentation.
C. Divalproex sodium is an anticonvulsant also used as a mood stabilizer in acute mania, particularly in rapid cycling or mixed episodes. While effective, it is often considered an alternative or adjunct to lithium rather than the first choice in classic euphoric manic presentations. It may be preferred when lithium is contraindicated.
D. Olanzapine is effective for acute manic episodes and can rapidly reduce agitation and psychotic symptoms. However, it is primarily used for short-term symptom control or in combination with mood stabilizers rather than as first-line monotherapy for long-term stabilization in classic euphoric mania. Its metabolic side effects also limit long-term preference.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Patients taking Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors may experience adverse effects such as sexual dysfunction, weight gain, and sedation due to increased serotonergic activity. When these side effects significantly affect quality of life, clinicians may consider switching to or augmenting with an antidepressant that has a more favorable side effect profile. Medication selection focuses on maintaining antidepressant efficacy while minimizing serotonergic sexual and metabolic effects.
Rationale:
A. Trazodone is primarily used for depression and insomnia due to its sedating properties. However, it can also cause drowsiness and does not reliably improve sexual dysfunction or weight gain. In some cases, it may even worsen sedation, making it less suitable.
B. Isocarboxazid is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used for treatment-resistant depression. It carries significant dietary and drug interaction risks and is not used to address SSRI-induced sexual dysfunction or weight gain. Its safety profile makes it a less practical option.
C. Imipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic side effects, sedation, and weight gain. It may also contribute to sexual dysfunction rather than improve it. Therefore, it does not address the patient’s primary concerns and may worsen them.
D. Bupropion is an appropriate alternative because it primarily affects dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake rather than serotonin. It is associated with fewer sexual side effects and is often weight-neutral or associated with weight loss. Additionally, it is less sedating, making it suitable for patients experiencing SSRI-induced fatigue and sexual dysfunction.
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