A client is 6 weeks pregnant. She had a previous spontaneous abortion at 13 weeks of gestation and a pregnancy that ended at 38 weeks with the birth of a girl.
What does the nurse determine is her gravida and para?
Gravida 2 Para 2.
Gravida 3 Para 3.
Gravida 3 Para 1.
Gravida 1 Para 1.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
This choice is incorrect because it fails to account for the client's current pregnancy and the distinct definitions of gravida and para. Gravida refers to the total number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of the outcome. Para refers to the number of pregnancies that have reached the age of viability, which is typically 20 weeks. This client has three total pregnancies and only one that reached term, making a 2/2 designation scientifically and clinically inaccurate.
Choice B rationale
This choice incorrectly identifies the parity. While the client is indeed a Gravida 3 because she has had three pregnancies, she is not a Para 3. Para only counts pregnancies that progressed past 20 weeks gestation. Since her first pregnancy ended in a spontaneous abortion at 13 weeks, it does not contribute to the parity count. Only the pregnancy that went to 38 weeks counts as a parous event. Therefore, Para 3 overestimates her clinical obstetric history.
Choice C rationale
The client is Gravida 3 because she is currently pregnant (1), had a previous abortion (2), and had one full-term birth (3). She is Para 1 because only one of those pregnancies, the 38-week birth, reached the scientific threshold of viability, which is defined as ≥ 20 weeks of gestation. The spontaneous abortion occurred at 13 weeks, which is prior to the limit of viability and therefore does not increase the parity count in the GP system.
Choice D rationale
This choice is scientifically incorrect as it underestimates both the number of pregnancies and the number of births. A Gravida 1 Para 1 status would imply that the client is currently undergoing her only pregnancy and has already delivered one child, which is a logical contradiction. It ignores the current 6-week pregnancy and the previous spontaneous abortion. Accurate obstetric history is essential for assessing risks in the current pregnancy, such as the potential for recurrent pregnancy loss.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Erosive arthritis is not typically associated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE). While many SLE patients experience joint pain and swelling known as lupus arthritis, it is characteristically non-erosive and non-deforming. This distinguishes it from rheumatoid arthritis, where the inflammatory process actively destroys bone and cartilage. In SLE, the joint involvement is usually transient and does not show the classic "punched-out" erosions on radiographic imaging, making this finding an unlikely or invalid sign for a typical SLE diagnosis.
Choice B rationale
Pericarditis is a well-recognized manifestation of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus and is the most common cardiac complication of the disease. It involves inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, which can cause chest pain and a pericardial friction rub. Since SLE is a multisystem inflammatory disease that frequently targets serous membranes, the presence of pericarditis is highly consistent with the pathology of SLE and would be a valid sign found in a patient's medical record.
Choice C rationale
Photosensitivity is a classic and highly valid sign of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. Approximately 60 to 90 percent of patients with SLE experience an abnormal reaction to ultraviolet (UV) light, which can trigger both skin rashes and systemic disease flares. UV exposure causes skin cell damage and the release of nuclear antigens that react with circulating antibodies, worsening the autoimmune response. Therefore, a history of skin reactions to sunlight is a key diagnostic criterion for the condition.
Choice D rationale
A red, macular facial rash, commonly known as the malar or "butterfly" rash, is the most iconic physical sign of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus. This rash typically spreads across the bridge of the nose and the cheeks while sparing the nasolabial folds. It is a valid clinical finding that appears in a large percentage of patients, particularly during periods of disease activity. Its presence is one of the primary physical markers used by clinicians to identify and monitor SLE.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Artificial rupture of membranes, also known as an amniotomy, is a procedure where the amniotic sac is intentionally punctured to induce or augment labor. While it involves a physical intervention, it does not typically involve the type of placental or uterine wall trauma that leads to significant fetomaternal hemorrhage. Therefore, it is not a standard, primary indication for the administration of RhoGAM unless it was accompanied by other complications that resulted in the mixing of fetal and maternal blood.
Choice B rationale
Placenta abruption involves the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which often causes significant bleeding at the site of attachment. This event creates a high risk for fetomaternal hemorrhage, where Rh positive fetal red blood cells enter the Rh negative mother's circulation. To prevent the mother from developing antibodies against the D antigen, RhoGAM must be administered. This prevents hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies by providing passive immunity that clears fetal cells.
Choice C rationale
The application of a fetal scalp electrode is a method of internal fetal monitoring that involves attaching a small spiral electrode to the fetal presenting part. While this causes a minor puncture in the fetal skin, it does not usually result in a significant enough breach of the placental barrier to cause maternal sensitization. Consequently, this procedure is generally not considered an indication for RhoGAM administration, as the risk of maternal exposure to fetal blood during this specific process is extremely low.
Choice D rationale
Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure where a needle is inserted through the maternal abdomen and into the uterine cavity to withdraw amniotic fluid. Because the needle must pass through the uterine environment and potentially near the placenta, there is a distinct risk of causing a small amount of fetal blood to enter the maternal bloodstream. In Rh negative mothers, this potential exposure necessitates the administration of RhoGAM to prevent the formation of permanent anti-D antibodies that could harm future fetuses.
Choice E rationale
Chorionic villus sampling is a prenatal test performed in early pregnancy that involves taking a sample of placental tissue for genetic testing. Similar to amniocentesis, this invasive procedure carries a significant risk of fetomaternal hemorrhage because it directly disrupts the placental structure. Any time there is a risk of fetal cells entering maternal circulation in an Rh negative individual, RhoGAM is required to provide immunoprophylaxis and protect against the development of Rh isoimmunization, ensuring the safety of subsequent pregnancies
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