A client presents with severe hyperkalemia and cardiac arrhythmias.
Which interventions are urgent to prevent life-threatening complications? Select all that apply.
Administer potassium supplements.
Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
Administer calcium gluconate.
Prepare for hemodialysis.
Administer diuretics.
Correct Answer : B,C,D
Managing hyperkalemia and burn injuries necessitates rapid assessment and specialized intervention. Understanding the electrophysiology of the heart and the mechanical pressure exerted by burned skin allows nurses to intervene effectively to stabilize cardiac rhythms and maintain peripheral pulses and perfusion.
Choice A rationale
Potassium supplements would exacerbate hyperkalemia, further increasing the extracellular potassium concentration. This would worsen cardiac membrane depolarization, potentially leading to fatal ventricular arrhythmias or asystole. Normal serum potassium levels range from 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L.
Choice B rationale
Continuous cardiac monitoring is vital because hyperkalemia alters the myocardial resting membrane potential. This can lead to peaked T waves, widened QRS complexes, and cardiac arrest. Constant surveillance allows for immediate detection of life-threatening electrical changes.
Choice C rationale
Calcium gluconate is administered to stabilize the cardiac cell membrane. It does not lower potassium levels but antagonizes the cardiotoxic effects of hyperkalemia by increasing the threshold potential, thereby reducing the risk of lethal arrhythmias.
Choice D rationale
Hemodialysis is the most definitive and rapid method to remove excess potassium from the blood. It is indicated in severe, symptomatic hyperkalemia when medical therapies are insufficient to stabilize the patient or clear the electrolyte.
Choice E rationale
While diuretics like furosemide can increase potassium excretion, they are often too slow for emergency stabilization in severe hyperkalemia with arrhythmias. They require adequate renal perfusion and function, making them a secondary rather than primary intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"C","dropdown-group-3":"A"}
Explanation
The nurse must identify the client's highest risk factors for perioperative complications. While the client is currently in the preoperative area for a hip arthroplasty due to osteoarthritis, their specific medical history places them at an elevated priority for the development of a Deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Total hip arthroplasty is a high-risk procedure for venous thromboembolism (VTE), and this client's history of recurring clots significantly increases the likelihood of a repeat event during or after surgery.
Rationales:
Deep vein thrombosis: This is the priority condition for monitoring and prophylaxis in this scenario. The client has a documented history of DVT on two separate occasions. Surgery, particularly orthopedic surgery on the lower extremities, causes venous stasis and vessel injury, which combined with the client's history, creates a high-risk profile for VTE.
History of DVT: This is a direct indicator of the client's predisposition to venous clotting. Previous episodes of DVT are the strongest predictor for future occurrences, especially when undergoing a major surgery like a total hip arthroplasty that involves significant immobility.
History of multiple DVTs: The fact that the client has a history of two separate DVTs reinforces the priority of this condition. It suggests a chronic or recurring susceptibility to clotting that requires aggressive perioperative management, such as mechanical prophylaxis (sequential compression devices) and pharmacological anticoagulation.
Pulmonary embolus: While a pulmonary embolus is a life-threatening complication of DVT, there is no evidence in the notes (such as acute chest pain or shortness of breath) to suggest it is currently occurring. It is a potential consequence rather than a condition evidenced by the current preoperative notes.
Osteoarthritis flare: While the client has painful hip osteoarthritis, this is the reason for the surgery, not a priority complication to be identified from the medical history for perioperative safety.
GERD exacerbation: The client's GERD is controlled with an antacid PRN. While important for preoperative fasting (NPO) considerations, it is not a priority condition compared to the risk of vascular complications like DVT.
Chest pain and Dyspnea: These are symptoms of an active pulmonary embolism or cardiac event. Neither is mentioned in the 0630 nurses' notes, so they cannot serve as evidence for the client's current status.
Recent surgery: The client is currently preparing for surgery. While past surgeries are noted, "recent surgery" typically refers to the immediate postoperative period as a risk factor, rather than the historical hysterectomy or appendectomy.
Smoking history: While a 52-pack-year history is significant for respiratory and vascular health, the client quit 2 years ago. While it contributes to general risk, it is less specific to the immediate priority of DVT than the direct history of having had multiple clots.
Immobility risk: The client's BMI of 30.1 and the nature of hip surgery contribute to immobility, which is a risk factor. However, the history of previous DVTs is a more specific piece of "evidence" from the notes that points to the priority condition of recurrent DVT.
Anticoagulant use: The notes mention hypertension and cholesterol meds but do not explicitly list current anticoagulant use. If they were on them, it would be a management factor, but it is not listed as evidence in the provided note.
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for correct condition hemorrhagic stroke is strongly indicated by the "worst headache of my life," sudden aphasia, and left-sided weakness. an inr of 4.9 is critically high, significantly increasing bleeding risk. negative kernig and brudzinski signs help rule out meningitis despite the fever history. the presence of photophobia and vision loss further supports an intracranial event.
Rationale for correct actions a stat ct brain is the gold standard to differentiate between ischemic and hemorrhagic events and identify intracranial bleeding. a lumbar puncture may be indicated if the ct is negative but clinical suspicion of subarachnoid hemorrhage remains high. these actions are time-sensitive to prevent secondary brain injury from increased intracranial pressure. normal inr for a client not on anticoagulants is 0.8-1.1. the nurse must prioritize diagnostic imaging to guide surgical or medical intervention. these steps address the acute neurological deficit and high-intensity headache.
Rationale for correct parameters blood pressure must be monitored strictly as hypertension can exacerbate intracranial bleeding and worsen stroke outcomes. the client's blood pressure rose from 119/85 to 159/83 mm hg, indicating a need for tight control. monitoring pt/inr is vital due to the supratherapeutic level of 4.9, which necessitates reversal agents like vitamin k or fresh frozen plasma. normal prothrombin time is typically 11-13.5 seconds. managing these parameters prevents further hematoma expansion. frequent neurological checks are also implicit in monitoring these physiological markers.
Rationale for incorrect conditions migraine headache does not typically present with sudden aphasia, hemiparesis, or an inr of 4.9. trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by stabbing facial pain, which the client explicitly denied. meningitis is unlikely given the negative kernig and brudzinski signs and the sudden, focal neurological deficits. while the client had a fever, the clinical picture is dominated by vascular and neurological collapse.
Rationale for incorrect actions administering sumatriptan is contraindicated in suspected stroke as it causes vasoconstriction and is intended for migraines. carbamazepine is the specific treatment for trigeminal neuralgia, which does not match this client's presentation. providing ibuprofen or other anticoagulants would be dangerous given the already elevated inr of 4.9.
Rationale for incorrect parameters a headache diary for food triggers is a long-term management tool for migraine headache, not an acute stroke. temperature monitoring is less critical than hemodynamics in the immediate management of a suspected hemorrhage. while the wbc is slightly elevated, it is expected with a uti and is less urgent than the neurological crisis.
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