A client presents with superficial burns and multiple intact blisters on the forearm.
During dressing change, several blisters rupture and the underlying skin is exposed. Which action should the nurse take?
Apply a topical antimicrobial ointment and sterile nonadherent dressing.
Leave the area open to air to promote drying.
Apply dry gauze tightly over the wound.
Remove all remaining intact blisters.
The Correct Answer is A
This scenario requires understanding of integumentary integrity and burn wound management. Knowledge of infection prevention and moist wound healing principles is essential. Partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and dermis, necessitating protection of the newly exposed, vulnerable basement membrane to facilitate re-epithelialization.
Choice A rationale
. Antimicrobials prevent colonization of exposed dermis while nonadherent dressings maintain a moist environment. This facilitates cellular migration and prevents further trauma during future dressing changes. Protecting the bed from environmental pathogens is critical for healing and preventing secondary infection.
Choice B rationale
. Air exposure causes desiccation of the wound bed, which leads to cell death and delayed healing. Dry environments promote eschar formation, increasing the risk of scarring. Maintaining a moist interface is the gold standard for promoting rapid dermal repair.
Choice C rationale
. Dry gauze adheres to the wound exudate and causes significant tissue damage during removal. Tight application can also impair local capillary circulation, leading to ischemia. Dressings should be applied loosely enough to ensure adequate perfusion to the healing tissue.
Choice D rationale
. Intact blisters serve as a biological dressing, protecting the underlying dermis from infection. Removing them prematurely exposes the wound bed unnecessarily to the external environment. They should only be debrided if they are large enough to impede joint movement.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A hypophysectomy involves the surgical removal of the pituitary gland. Knowledge of endocrine physiology is required to understand the postoperative loss of posterior pituitary hormones and the necessity of exogenous replacement therapy to maintain fluid balance and prevent complications.
Choice A rationale
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone involves excessive ADH, whereas hypophysectomy results in a total deficiency. Vasopressin is given to prevent the opposite condition, diabetes insipidus, characterized by massive polyuria and severe fluid volume deficit.
Choice B rationale
The posterior pituitary stores and secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin. Removal of the gland eliminates the body's ability to concentrate urine, necessitating hormonal replacement to regulate water reabsorption in the kidneys.
Choice C rationale
Vasopressin is not primarily used to treat cerebral edema or intracranial pressure. While it affects fluid volume, medications like mannitol or corticosteroids are the standard pharmacological interventions for managing postoperative cerebral swelling and elevated pressure.
Choice D rationale
Vasopressin is an antidiuretic hormone, not a growth hormone. Growth failure is treated with somatropin. While pituitary removal stops growth hormone production, the immediate life-threatening concern postoperatively is the management of massive water loss.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Neurological assessment using motor responses helps determine the level of brainstem involvement. This scenario requires applying knowledge of the Glasgow Coma Scale and motor pathways to distinguish between pathological posturing and more integrated, purposeful motor functions.
Choice A rationale
Purposeful movement indicates that the motor cortex or higher brain centers are successfully processing stimuli. Moving away from pain represents a significant improvement from decorticate posturing, which involves damage to the corticospinal tract and midbrain.
Choice B rationale
Decerebrate posturing involves rigid extension of the arms and legs, signifying deeper brainstem injury or herniation. This change indicates neurological deterioration rather than improvement, as it suggests the lesion has progressed lower into the pons.
Choice C rationale
Pupils that are fixed and dilated at 6 mm indicate loss of autonomic function and severe cranial nerve III compression. This is a sign of increasing intracranial pressure and brainstem failure, representing a critical clinical decline.
Choice D rationale
Flaccid paralysis is often the most severe motor finding, indicating a loss of all muscle tone and spinal reflex arcs. In the context of traumatic brain injury, this usually signals profound neurological collapse rather than recovery..
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