A client who experienced a myocardial infarction tells the nurse that he is fearful of dying.
Which statement by the nurse will help validate this client's feelings?
"It must be very frightening to be told that you've had a heart attack.”.
"Why are you afraid? Can you explain your fear of dying?"
"Please be assured that we're doing everything possible to prevent you from dying.”.
"Facing death would certainly be a frightening experience for me.”.
The Correct Answer is A
This scenario requires the application of therapeutic communication principles, specifically validation. Validating feelings involves acknowledging the client's emotional state without dismissing it. Nurses must distinguish between open-ended exploration, false reassurance, and self-disclosure to effectively support patients experiencing acute psychological distress.
Choice A rationale
Validation occurs when the nurse acknowledges the client's subjective experience. Myocardial infarction triggers significant anxiety regarding mortality. Acknowledging that the situation is frightening provides empathy and validates the client's feelings without being dismissive or providing false reassurance.
Choice B rationale
Asking why is often perceived as accusatory and may put the client on the defensive. It requires the client to analyze their emotions logically during a crisis, which can block further therapeutic communication and effective emotional expression.
Choice C rationale
This statement provides false reassurance. In a clinical setting, nurses cannot guarantee specific outcomes. This approach shuts down the client's expression of fear by shifting the focus to clinical actions rather than acknowledging the emotional reality.
Choice D rationale
This is an example of self-disclosure. By focusing on the nurse's own hypothetical feelings, the conversation shifts away from the client. Therapeutic communication must remain client-centered rather than focusing on the nurse's personal perspectives or reactions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["No"]
Explanation
The correct answer is No.
Step 1 is 14 lbs ÷ 2.2 lb/kg = 6.36363636 kg.
Step 2 is 6.36 kg × 20 mg/kg/day = 127.2 mg/day for the minimum safe dose.
Step 3 is 6.36 kg × 30 mg/kg/day = 190.8 mg/day for the maximum safe dose.
Step 4 is 35 mg × (24 hours ÷ 4 hours) = 35 mg × 6 doses = 210 mg/day for the total daily dose.
Step 5 is 210 mg/day > 190.8 mg/day, which exceeds the recommended maximum daily range.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Managing esophagogastric balloon tamponade requires knowledge of airway protection and mucosal integrity. Applying nursing interventions for a client with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube involves preventing complications like aspiration and tissue necrosis while maintaining the mechanical pressure needed for hemostasis.
Choice A rationale
Frequent oral and nares care is essential because the tube causes irritation and prevents the client from swallowing saliva. Secretions accumulate in the upper airway, increasing infection risk and skin breakdown at the insertion site.
Choice B rationale
Clients with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube must remain strictly NPO to prevent aspiration and avoid disturbing the tube. The balloon occupies the esophagus and stomach to stop variceal bleeding, making oral intake impossible and extremely dangerous.
Choice C rationale
Ambulation is contraindicated for a client with an active balloon tamponade due to the risk of tube displacement. Displacement can lead to airway obstruction if the gastric balloon migrates upward into the oropharynx or trachea.
Choice D rationale
A supine position increases the risk of aspiration and respiratory distress. The nurse should maintain the head of the bed at 30 to 45 degrees to facilitate breathing and minimize the risk of pulmonary complications.
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