A client who had an anterior wall myocardial infarction (MI) and a coronary artery bypass surgery one year ago is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with severe shortness of breath and hemoptysis. Routine medications include an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, diuretic, anticoagulant, and potassium supplements. Vital signs are a temperature of 97.6° F (36.4° C) orally heart rate 108 beats/minute, respiratory rate 28 breaths/minute, blood pressure 96/70 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation 89% on room air. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect to find next?
Edema of ankles and pretibial areas
Extra heart sound at left midclavicular line.
Breath sounds that are diminished and wet.
Skin coolness and diaphoresis.
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Edema of ankles and pretibial areas: Peripheral edema is more commonly associated with chronic heart failure or right-sided heart failure. While it may develop over time, it is not an immediate finding in acute pulmonary decompensation.
B. Extra heart sound at left midclavicular line: An S3 or S4 gallop may be present in heart failure, but it requires auscultation and may not always be immediately apparent. It is not the most expected or urgent finding in acute pulmonary edema.
C. Breath sounds that are diminished and wet: Severe shortness of breath and hemoptysis suggest pulmonary congestion or edema. Wet, crackling, or diminished breath sounds indicate fluid accumulation in the alveoli, a hallmark finding in acute left-sided heart failure and pulmonary edema, which is expected in this scenario.
D. Skin coolness and diaphoresis: Cool, clammy skin and diaphoresis can occur with shock or severe cardiac compromise, but they are secondary manifestations. The primary and most expected finding related to pulmonary congestion is wet or diminished breath sounds.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Administer famotidine 20 mg IV: Famotidine is used for stress ulcer prophylaxis in critically ill clients but does not address the current protocol-driven abnormalities. The client’s immediate issues relate to glucose control, hemodynamics, and oxygenation.
B. Raise oxygen by 10 percent: The client’s oxygen saturation is 92% on 50% oxygen, which is acceptable in the setting of critical illness and MODS. There is no evidence of acute hypoxemia requiring escalation at this time. Oxygen therapy adjustments are not prioritized when saturation goals are being met.
C. Increase dopamine 2 mcg/kg/min: Dopamine is being titrated to maintain a MAP greater than 65 mm Hg, and the current MAP is 66 mm Hg, meeting the target. Increasing dopamine could unnecessarily raise heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand. No titration is indicated while the hemodynamic goal is achieved.
D. Titrate insulin infusion by 1 unit/hour: The blood glucose level of 160 mg/dL falls within the 150–199 mg/dL range, which requires an increase in insulin infusion by 1 unit/hour per protocol. Adjusting the insulin drip maintains tight glycemic control, which is essential in MODS to reduce infection risk and improve outcomes.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering methylergonovine maleate is appropriate if the uterus is boggy, which indicates uterine atony. Uterine atony is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Methylergonovine stimulates uterine contraction, helping to firm the uterus and reduce bleeding. This is a critical intervention when indicated.
Choice B reason: Massaging a firm fundus is not appropriate. Fundal massage is only indicated when the uterus is boggy to stimulate contraction. Massaging a firm fundus can cause unnecessary discomfort and does not provide any benefit. Therefore, this action should not be anticipated.
Choice C reason: Observing lochia during palpation of the fundus is an important nursing action. Lochia provides information about the amount, color, and presence of clots, which helps assess for postpartum hemorrhage or abnormal bleeding. Monitoring lochia ensures early detection of complications.
Choice D reason: Documenting fundal height is necessary to track uterine involution. The fundus should gradually descend into the pelvis after delivery. Accurate documentation allows for comparison over time and helps identify delayed involution or abnormal findings.
Choice E reason: Determining whether the fundus is midline is essential. A fundus that is deviated to one side often indicates a distended bladder, which can interfere with uterine contraction and increase risk of hemorrhage. Assessing fundal position ensures appropriate interventions, such as assisting the client to void, if needed.
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