A nurse educator is teaching a class of newly licensed nurses about informed consent. Which of the following statements by one of the nurses indicates an understanding of the teaching?
"The client must be competent before signing the consent form."
"I should be in the client's room when the provider is explaining the procedure."
"I will collaborate with the provider before presenting information to the client."
"A nursing supervisor should witness the client signing the consent form."
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. The client must be competent before signing the consent form. Competence means the client has the ability to understand the information provided, weigh risks and benefits, and make an informed decision. Obtaining informed consent from a client who is not competent is invalid and may be legally and ethically problematic.
B. The nurse’s role is not to be present while the provider explains the procedure, unless requested by the client. The primary responsibility of the nurse is to ensure the client understands and voluntarily signs the consent form, and to clarify any questions, but the explanation is the provider’s responsibility.
C. The nurse does not present the procedure information independently. While collaboration with the provider is important for clarification, the nurse should reinforce understanding, answer questions, and witness the signature, not provide the original procedural explanation.
D. A nursing supervisor is not required to witness consent. Typically, the nurse witnessing the signature ensures the client signed voluntarily and is competent, but there is no requirement for a supervisor to be present.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. A client experiencing chest pain with radiation to the arm is at high risk for a life-threatening condition such as myocardial infarction. This client would be tagged red (immediate) because they require urgent intervention to prevent death.
B. A client with a deep laceration to the leg who is stable and not experiencing life-threatening bleeding would be assigned a yellow tag (delayed). Yellow-tagged patients have serious injuries that require medical attention but can wait for a short period without immediate threat to life. This classification allows resources to be prioritized for patients who are in more critical condition.
C. A client with a large bruise to the shoulder with no other complications is considered a green tag (minor, “walking wounded”). This client’s injuries are not life-threatening and can safely wait for treatment.
D. A client who is unable to breathe without manual ventilation requires immediate life-saving intervention and would be tagged red (immediate) due to the high risk of death without urgent care.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Restricting visitors is not necessary for streptococcal pharyngitis, as this infection is typically spread via droplets. Standard visitor precautions (masking and hand hygiene) are sufficient, rather than a total visitor ban.
B. Wearing a mask when within 1 meter (3.3 feet) of the client is appropriate for droplet precautions, which are indicated for streptococcal pharyngitis. The mask prevents inhalation of respiratory droplets that contain infectious bacteria. This action demonstrates correct adherence to infection control protocols.
C. Donning sterile gloves is unnecessary for routine oral care. Standard precautions using clean gloves are sufficient unless there is a risk of exposure to blood or body fluids requiring aseptic technique. Sterile gloves are reserved for invasive procedures or surgery.
D. Placing the client in a positive airflow room with 12 air exchanges per hour is part of airborne isolation for infections like tuberculosis. Streptococcal pharyngitis is not airborne, so this is not required.
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