A nurse is assessing a client with suspected hyperthyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Weight loss
Bradycardia
Cold intolerance
Lethargy
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Weight loss is a common finding in hyperthyroidism due to increased metabolic rate from elevated thyroid hormone levels. Thyroxine accelerates basal metabolism, increasing calorie expenditure, leading to unintentional weight loss despite normal or increased appetite. This catabolic state affects fat and muscle, making it a key clinical sign.
Choice B reason: Bradycardia is not associated with hyperthyroidism. Excessive thyroid hormone stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, causing tachycardia to meet increased metabolic demands. Bradycardia may occur in hypothyroidism, where metabolism slows, but in hyperthyroidism, heart rate increases, often accompanied by palpitations, reflecting heightened cardiovascular activity.
Choice C reason: Cold intolerance is characteristic of hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, increased metabolic heat production causes heat intolerance and excessive sweating. Patients feel warm due to elevated thyroid hormone levels accelerating cellular metabolism, making cold intolerance an unlikely finding in this condition.
Choice D reason: Lethargy is not typical in hyperthyroidism. Elevated thyroid hormones increase energy expenditure, leading to restlessness, nervousness, or hyperactivity. Lethargy is more common in hypothyroidism, where low hormone levels slow metabolism, causing fatigue. Hyperthyroidism patients often report insomnia or increased energy, not sluggishness or lethargy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, reduces inflammation in anaphylaxis by inhibiting immune responses. However, its onset is slow, taking hours to act, making it unsuitable as the first-line treatment for acute anaphylactic shock. It is used as an adjunct to stabilize symptoms after epinephrine addresses immediate life-threatening bronchoconstriction and hypotension.
Choice B reason: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock. It acts rapidly via alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors to reverse bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, and hypotension. It constricts blood vessels, increases cardiac output, and relaxes airway smooth muscles, alleviating life-threatening symptoms like airway obstruction and shock, making it critical for immediate administration.
Choice C reason: Dobutamine, a beta-agonist, enhances cardiac contractility and is used in cardiogenic shock. It does not address the histamine-mediated vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, or angioedema in anaphylaxis. Its use could worsen hypotension by increasing cardiac demand without correcting the underlying immune-mediated mechanisms, making it inappropriate for this emergency.
Choice D reason: Furosemide, a diuretic, treats fluid overload in conditions like heart failure. In anaphylactic shock, it would exacerbate hypotension by reducing intravascular volume, worsening tissue perfusion. Anaphylaxis involves histamine-induced vascular leak, not fluid overload, so furosemide is contraindicated and would not address the acute airway or cardiovascular symptoms.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A nasal cannula at 2 L/min delivers low-flow oxygen (24-28% FiO2), insufficient for a COPD exacerbation, where hypoxemia is severe due to airway obstruction and ventilation-perfusion mismatch. It cannot provide precise, high FiO2 needed to correct hypoxia while avoiding excessive oxygen, which may suppress respiratory drive in COPD patients.
Choice B reason: A simple face mask at 10 L/min delivers 40-60% FiO2 but lacks precision in oxygen concentration. In COPD, excessive oxygen can reduce respiratory drive, causing CO2 retention due to the hypoxic drive mechanism. This makes it less suitable than a Venturi mask, which provides controlled oxygen delivery.
Choice C reason: A non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min delivers near 100% FiO2, which is excessive for COPD exacerbation. High oxygen levels can suppress the hypoxic drive in COPD patients, leading to hypercapnia and respiratory failure. Controlled oxygen delivery is needed to balance oxygenation and CO2 retention risks.
Choice D reason: A Venturi mask at 40% FiO2 delivers precise oxygen concentrations, ideal for COPD exacerbations. It balances hypoxemia correction with the risk of CO2 retention by providing controlled FiO2. This prevents suppression of the hypoxic respiratory drive while ensuring adequate oxygenation, making it the preferred method for acute COPD management.
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