A nurse is assisting in the care of a client at the clinic.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.
The client is at risk for
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
The client at 10 weeks gestation presents with abdominal cramping, moderate bright red vaginal bleeding, and an open cervix. These findings are classic indicators of a spontaneous abortion, particularly an inevitable abortion, in which pregnancy loss is in progress and cannot be prevented. Recognizing the significance of cervical dilation in the presence of bleeding is essential for prompt intervention, emotional support, and prevention of complications such as hemorrhage or infection.
Rationale for correct choices:
• Spontaneous abortion: This refers to the unintentional loss of pregnancy before 20 weeks gestation. The combination of abdominal cramping, moderate bright red vaginal bleeding, and an open cervix strongly suggests that the pregnancy is actively being expelled. Cervical dilation is particularly important because it differentiates threatened abortion from inevitable abortion. These findings indicate that the pregnancy is unlikely to continue and require close monitoring and supportive care.
• Cervical dilation: An open cervix during early pregnancy bleeding is a hallmark finding of inevitable spontaneous abortion. Cervical dilation indicates that the body is actively progressing toward expulsion of the products of conception. In threatened abortion, the cervix remains closed despite bleeding and cramping. Therefore, the presence of cervical dilation is the most clinically significant finding supporting the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion in this client.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Molar pregnancy: This is an abnormal gestation characterized by excessive trophoblastic tissue growth and markedly elevated hCG levels. Clients often present with uterine enlargement greater than expected for gestational age, severe nausea and vomiting, and passage of grape-like vesicles. This client’s hCG level is low-positive rather than excessively elevated, making molar pregnancy unlikely. The assessment findings are more consistent with pregnancy loss than trophoblastic overgrowth.
• Ectopic pregnancy: An ectopic pregnancy occurs when the fertilized ovum implants outside the uterus, most commonly in the fallopian tube. A history of recurrent chlamydia infections does increase ectopic pregnancy risk because pelvic inflammatory disease can scar the fallopian tubes. However, the open cervix is more characteristic of spontaneous abortion than ectopic pregnancy. Ectopic pregnancy more commonly presents with unilateral pelvic pain, adnexal tenderness, and possible signs of internal bleeding.
• hCG levels: The hCG level of 30 IU/L is only minimally positive and does not specifically identify the type of pregnancy complication occurring. While abnormal hCG trends can suggest nonviable pregnancy, a single low-positive result is less diagnostic than physical findings such as cervical dilation. In molar pregnancy, hCG levels are usually dramatically elevated rather than low.
• History of chlamydia infections: A history of recurrent chlamydia infections is a major risk factor for ectopic pregnancy because chronic inflammation may damage the fallopian tubes. However, this finding does not best explain the client’s current presentation of vaginal bleeding with an open cervix. The physical evidence of cervical dilation directly supports spontaneous abortion rather than ectopic implantation. Risk factors are important, but current clinical findings take priority in determining the most likely condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor used to manage hypertension and heart failure by reducing angiotensin II–mediated vasoconstriction. A common early adverse effect is orthostatic hypotension due to systemic vasodilation, especially after the first few doses. This can lead to dizziness or syncope when changing positions too quickly. Patient education focuses on safety measures that reduce sudden drops in blood pressure and prevent falls.
Rationale:
A. Withholding the medication based on pulse rate is not appropriate because enalapril does not primarily affect heart rate. It acts on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system to lower blood pressure, so monitoring parameters are more related to blood pressure than pulse rate. This instruction is not relevant to the reported adverse effect.
B. Increasing dietary potassium is unsafe because enalapril can increase potassium levels by decreasing aldosterone secretion. This raises the risk of hyperkalemia, which may lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. Clients taking ACE inhibitors are usually advised to avoid excessive potassium intake or potassium supplements.
C. Rising slowly from sitting or lying positions helps prevent orthostatic hypotension, a known effect of Enalapril. Gradual position changes allow the cardiovascular system to adjust and maintain cerebral perfusion, reducing the risk of dizziness and syncope. This is the most appropriate safety instruction for the client.
D. Decreasing daily fluid intake is not recommended because adequate hydration is necessary to maintain blood pressure and renal perfusion. Excessive fluid restriction could worsen hypotension and renal function. Fluid management should be individualized, but routine reduction is not an appropriate response to this medication effect.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Nursing care for clients with burn injuries such as those affecting the lower extremities requires strict infection control because damaged skin barriers significantly increase the risk of microbial invasion. Burn wounds are highly susceptible to contamination due to loss of protective epidermis and exposure of underlying tissues. Care for a client with a partial or full-thickness burn, as seen in Burn injury, focuses on aseptic technique, appropriate wound cleansing, and prevention of infection while promoting healing. Proper dressing technique is essential to reduce complications such as sepsis and delayed wound recovery.
Rationale:
A. Applying dressings with sterile gloves is correct because burn wounds require aseptic or sterile technique to minimize the risk of introducing pathogens into the damaged tissue. The absence of an intact skin barrier makes the client highly vulnerable to infection. Using sterile gloves during dressing application helps maintain a clean environment and supports optimal wound healing.
B. Using hydrogen peroxide for wound cleaning is inappropriate because it is cytotoxic to healthy tissue and can delay wound healing. Although it has antimicrobial properties, it damages fibroblasts and newly forming epithelial cells. Normal saline or prescribed wound cleansers are preferred for burn wound care.
C. Cleaning the most contaminated wounds first is incorrect because it increases the risk of cross-contamination to cleaner wound sites. Standard practice is to clean from the least contaminated area to the most contaminated area. This sequence helps prevent spread of microorganisms to vulnerable tissue.
D. Performing dressing changes every other day is not appropriate for most burn wounds, especially in the acute phase. Burn wounds often require more frequent assessment and dressing changes depending on exudate, infection risk, and type of dressing used. The frequency should be determined by provider orders and wound condition rather than a fixed schedule.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
