A nurse is assisting with the care of a client.
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.
The Correct Answer is []
This question focuses on identifying a mood disorder in a client presenting with depressive symptoms complicated by alcohol use and psychosocial stressors. The client demonstrates hallmark features of major depressive disorder, including flat affect, poor hygiene, social withdrawal, hopelessness, and verbalization that life is not worth living. Recent job loss, alcohol use, and injury further contribute to emotional instability. Priority nursing care involves therapeutic communication, safety assessment, and monitoring for suicide risk while supporting coping and emotional expression.
Rationale for correct choices:
• Major depressive disorder: The client presents with classic features of major depressive disorder, including persistent low mood, flat affect, social withdrawal, poor self-care, and expressions of hopelessness. The statement “life is not worth living” is particularly concerning for suicidal ideation commonly associated with severe depression. Alcohol use disorder may exacerbate depressive symptoms and impair judgment. These combined findings strongly support a diagnosis of major depressive disorder rather than personality or neurocognitive disorders.
• Speak with the client using simple words: Clients experiencing depression often have reduced concentration, slowed thinking, and difficulty processing complex information. Using simple, clear communication enhances understanding and reduces cognitive overload. This approach helps build trust and encourages the client to engage in therapeutic interaction. It also supports emotional safety in a client who may already feel overwhelmed and withdrawn.
• Assist the client to identify stressors: Identifying stressors such as job loss, injury, and alcohol use helps the client recognize triggers contributing to depressive symptoms. This is an important therapeutic intervention that promotes insight and supports coping strategy development. Understanding psychosocial contributors allows the nurse to guide the client toward problem-solving and behavioral changes. It also supports long-term management of depression.
• Sleep patterns: Depression commonly disrupts sleep, leading to insomnia or hypersomnia, both of which can worsen mood instability and fatigue. Monitoring sleep patterns helps evaluate severity of depressive symptoms and response to interventions. Sleep disturbances are also closely linked to increased suicide risk in severe depression. Tracking sleep provides valuable insight into overall mental health progression.
• Suicidal ideation: The client explicitly states that life is not worth living, which is a direct warning sign of suicidal ideation. Monitoring for suicidal thoughts, intent, and behaviors is a critical safety priority in depression management. Alcohol use further increases the risk by lowering inhibition and impairing judgment. Continuous assessment of suicide risk is essential to ensure client safety.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Dependent personality disorder: Dependent personality disorder is characterized by excessive need to be taken care of, difficulty making decisions independently, and fear of abandonment. This client instead demonstrates hopelessness, withdrawal, and depressive cognition rather than submissive or clingy behavior. The presence of suicidal thoughts and poor self-care aligns more with a mood disorder.
• Dementia: Dementia involves progressive cognitive decline, memory impairment, and impaired executive functioning typically seen in older adults. This client does not show evidence of memory loss, disorientation, or progressive cognitive deterioration. Instead, the symptoms are mood-related and linked to psychosocial stressors and substance use. The age and presentation make dementia unlikely.
• Schizophrenia: Schizophrenia is characterized by hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and impaired reality testing. While the client has flat affect, there is no evidence of psychosis such as hallucinations or delusional thinking. The client’s symptoms are more consistent with depressive withdrawal and hopelessness rather than a primary psychotic disorder. Therefore, schizophrenia is not the most appropriate diagnosis.
• Encourage client to eat slowly: This intervention is typically used for clients with swallowing difficulties, eating disorders, or aspiration risk. There is no indication that the client has impaired swallowing or eating behavior. The primary concerns are mood disturbance, safety, and suicide risk rather than nutritional pacing.
• Determine client's level of orientation: The client is alert and oriented based on available assessment data and does not demonstrate confusion or cognitive disorganization. Orientation assessment is more relevant for delirium, dementia, or acute neurological changes. The main issue here is mood disturbance and suicidality rather than cognitive impairment.
• Remain in the room with the client: While close observation may be appropriate if suicide risk escalates, continuous one-on-one monitoring is not indicated based on the current level of information provided. The client is being assessed and managed with therapeutic communication and safety monitoring. Remaining in the room is typically reserved for clients with active suicidal intent or high-risk behaviors. Current findings prioritize assessment and engagement rather than constant supervision.
• Hallucinations: Hallucinations are characteristic of psychotic disorders such as schizophrenia or severe substance-induced psychosis. This client shows no evidence of perceptual disturbances such as hearing voices or seeing things that are not present. The presentation is dominated by depressive symptoms, hopelessness, and social withdrawal rather than a break from reality. Therefore, monitoring for hallucinations is not a priority parameter in this case.
• Panic attacks: Panic attacks involve sudden episodes of intense fear with autonomic symptoms such as palpitations, chest pain, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. While this client reports anxiety, there is no indication of acute episodic panic symptoms or recurrent panic episodes. The emotional presentation is more consistent with chronic depressive mood rather than discrete anxiety attacks.
• Wandering at night: Wandering is typically associated with neurocognitive disorders such as dementia, particularly in moderate to severe stages where disorientation and impaired judgment occur. This client is not described as confused, disoriented, or cognitively impaired. Instead, the primary concerns are mood disturbance, substance use, and suicidal ideation. Therefore, monitoring for wandering behavior is not appropriate for this clinical picture.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Monitoring during blood transfusion requires early recognition of adverse reactions that may range from mild febrile responses to life-threatening immune-mediated emergencies. Reactions such as urticaria, bronchospasm, and wheezing indicate a systemic hypersensitivity response involving release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. In the context of a transfusion, these findings suggest a severe allergic reaction that can rapidly progress to respiratory compromise and shock. Immediate identification and intervention are critical to prevent deterioration.
Rationale:
A. Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions typically present with fever, chills, back or flank pain, hypotension, hemoglobinuria, and a sense of impending doom. These reactions result from ABO incompatibility leading to destruction of transfused red blood cells. Urticaria and wheezing are not the primary features, making this option less consistent with the presentation.
B. Febrile non-hemolytic reactions usually present with low-grade fever and chills due to cytokine release from donor leukocytes. They do not typically involve respiratory symptoms such as wheezing or cutaneous manifestations like urticaria. This reaction is generally mild and not associated with airway compromise.
C. Anaphylactic transfusion reaction is characterized by urticaria, wheezing, bronchospasm, hypotension, and potentially airway obstruction due to severe IgE-mediated hypersensitivity. In response to exposure to allergenic components in blood products, mast cell degranulation leads to histamine release causing both skin and respiratory symptoms. This presentation requires immediate cessation of transfusion and emergency intervention.
D. Circulatory overload (TACO) presents with dyspnea, hypertension, crackles, and signs of pulmonary edema due to volume excess. It does not typically cause urticaria or wheezing as primary manifestations. The underlying issue is fluid overload rather than immune-mediated hypersensitivity.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E","H","I"]
Explanation
This question focuses on identifying manifestations of opioid-induced respiratory depression following IV morphine administration. Morphine is an opioid analgesic that depresses the central nervous system and can suppress the respiratory drive, especially in postoperative clients who are already sedated from anesthesia. Findings such as somnolence, pinpoint pupils, bradypnea, hypotension, and decreased respiratory effort are classic indicators of opioid toxicity. Early recognition is critical because progressive respiratory depression can rapidly lead to hypoxia, respiratory arrest, and cardiovascular collapse.
Rationale for Correct findings:
• Decreased respiratory effort, bilateral crackles: Decreased respiratory effort following morphine administration is a serious sign of opioid-induced respiratory depression. Opioids suppress the medullary respiratory center, leading to slower and shallower breathing that reduces oxygen exchange. Bilateral crackles may indicate retained secretions, atelectasis, or developing pulmonary complications due to hypoventilation. This finding requires immediate nursing intervention, including respiratory assessment, oxygen support, and possible naloxone administration.
• Somnolent: Excessive somnolence is an early neurologic indicator of opioid oversedation and can precede respiratory arrest. A client who becomes increasingly difficult to arouse may not maintain adequate airway protection or respiratory effort. Monitoring the level of consciousness is essential because declining neurologic responsiveness correlates closely with worsening respiratory depression. Immediate reassessment and provider notification are warranted.
• Pinpoint pupils: Pinpoint pupils, or miosis, are a classic manifestation of opioid effects on the central nervous system. In the postoperative setting, this finding strongly suggests excessive opioid activity, particularly when accompanied by sedation and bradypnea. Although miosis alone may not be dangerous, it becomes clinically significant when occurring alongside respiratory depression. This finding helps confirm suspected opioid toxicity and requires prompt evaluation.
• Respiratory rate 10/min: A respiratory rate of 10/min is abnormally low and indicates bradypnea, which is a major concern after opioid administration. Respiratory depression is one of the most dangerous adverse effects of morphine because inadequate ventilation can lead to carbon dioxide retention and hypoxemia. A declining respiratory rate often precedes respiratory arrest if untreated. Immediate assessment and intervention are necessary to prevent deterioration.
• Blood pressure 98/58 mm Hg: Hypotension can occur with morphine because opioids cause peripheral vasodilation and reduce sympathetic nervous system activity. The client’s blood pressure has dropped significantly from baseline, suggesting a clinically important hemodynamic effect. Combined with sedation and respiratory depression, hypotension may indicate worsening opioid toxicity. Reduced perfusion can compromise oxygen delivery to vital organs and requires urgent monitoring and management.
Rationale for incorrect findings:
• S1, S2, no murmur, bradycardia: A heart rate of 58/min represents mild bradycardia, which can occur postoperatively or secondary to opioid administration. While it should continue to be monitored, it is less immediately dangerous than respiratory depression or altered consciousness. The absence of murmurs or abnormal heart sounds suggests no acute structural cardiac complication.
• Temperature 37.4° C (99.4° F): A temperature of 37.4°C is within a mild postoperative range and does not indicate acute infection or severe systemic complication. Slight elevations in temperature can occur after surgery because of inflammation or stress response. Compared with the client’s respiratory and neurologic changes, this finding is not immediately life-threatening. Ongoing monitoring is appropriate, but urgent intervention is not required based on temperature alone.
• Heart rate 58/min: Although slightly below normal, a heart rate of 58/min is not as critical as the client’s low respiratory rate and decreased responsiveness. Mild bradycardia may occur due to opioid effects, vagal stimulation, or postoperative relaxation. Since perfusion is still being maintained and no dysrhythmias are described, it is a secondary concern at this time. Airway and breathing abnormalities take priority over circulation in this scenario.
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