A nurse is caring for a 78-year-old patient with end-stage heart failure on contact precautions for MRSA. The patient is wearing a purple DNR bracelet and has an advance directive stating "comfort measures only." The patient's oxygen saturation drops to 85%, and the patient becomes increasingly short of breath. Which action should the nurse take first?
Don a gown and gloves, enter the room, and assess the patient's comfort level and provide oxygen and morphine as ordered
Call a Code Blue and initiate CPR per hospital protocol
Document the patient's condition
Contact the healthcare provider to discuss transferring the patient to the intensive care unit
The Correct Answer is A
End-stage heart failure is progressive myocardial pump failure causing systemic hypoperfusion, pulmonary congestion, hypoxia, dyspnea, palliative care, DNR directives prioritizing symptom relief, comfort-focused management, and avoidance of life-prolonging interventions therapies.
Rationale:
A. In a patient with comfort measures only and active DNR status, priority is symptom relief rather than resuscitation. The nurse should assess dyspnea severity and provide prescribed oxygen and morphine. This aligns with palliative goals and MRSA precautions protocol adherence.
B. Calling a Code Blue violates DNR orders and advance directive specifying comfort-only care. CPR initiation is inappropriate in end-stage disease. This action disregards end-of-life wishes and exposes patient to unwanted aggressive resuscitation contrary to ethical palliative care principles standards violated.
C. Documenting condition alone is incomplete during acute respiratory distress. Hypoxia requires immediate symptom management in comfort care settings. Failure to intervene with oxygen or opioids neglects palliative intervention priorities and does not address respiratory distress urgency per comfort protocol guidelines.
D. Contacting healthcare provider for ICU transfer conflicts with advance directive specifying comfort-only care. Escalation to intensive care contradicts palliative goals and DNR status. Focus should remain on symptom relief rather than invasive life-prolonging interventions in terminal heart failure clinical priority.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["D","E"]
Explanation
Pediatric unilateral hearing reduction commonly results from external auditory canal obstruction leading to impaired sound wave transmission to the tympanic membrane, producing conductive hearing loss due to mechanical blockage rather than cochlear or neural dysfunction processes.
Rationale:
A. Cerumen impaction involves accumulation of hardened earwax obstructing the external auditory canal. It can reduce hearing but does not specifically describe a visible bright green object. This condition is common but does not confirm foreign material presence. Therefore it is not the best match here.
B. Presbycusis is age-related degenerative hearing loss affecting elderly patients due to cochlear hair cell degeneration. It does not occur in kindergarten-aged children. It is a bilateral progressive sensorineural process unrelated to acute unilateral obstruction or visible foreign object in ear canal.
C. Sensorineural hearing loss results from cochlear or vestibulocochlear nerve damage affecting sound processing. It is not caused by visible external objects in the ear canal. There is no mechanical obstruction visible on inspection. Therefore it does not match the clinical finding described.
D. Conductive hearing loss occurs when sound transmission is blocked in external or middle ear structures. A visible foreign object obstructing the canal directly prevents sound conduction. This produces unilateral hearing loss consistent with reported symptoms in pediatric patients.
E. Foreign body obstruction is presence of external object in ear canal causing mechanical blockage. Bright green object strongly indicates inserted material such as toy fragment. This leads to acute unilateral hearing loss and is common in children due to exploratory behavior.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Tracheal deviation indicates a significant intrathoracic pressure imbalance resulting in mediastinal displacement due to severe pulmonary pathology, most commonly associated with tension pneumothorax, mediastinal shift, lung collapse, and hypoxia requiring emergency intervention oxygen resuscitation
Rationale:
A. Unilateral lymphadenopathy does not produce tracheal deviation because lymph node enlargement is confined to cervical chains. It does not alter intrathoracic pressure dynamics. Therefore it is not associated with mediastinal shift or acute airway compromise requiring emergency intervention clinically irrelevant
B. Goiter may cause anterior neck mass and rarely tracheal deviation when significantly enlarged. However deviation is typically gradual rather than acute. It is not associated with sudden mediastinal shift or life-threatening ventilation compromise requiring emergency decompression clinically progressive condition usually
C. Cervical muscle spasm may produce neck discomfort and limited range of motion but does not affect intrathoracic structures. It cannot cause tracheal deviation or mediastinal shift and is not associated with respiratory compromise or emergent airway pathology clinically benign condition
D. Tension pneumothorax on the right side causes increased intrapleural pressure leading to mediastinal shift away from affected lung. This results in tracheal deviation, reduced venous return, hypoxia, and rapid cardiopulmonary collapse requiring immediate decompression life threatening emergency condition requires intervention
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