A nurse is caring for a client who has end stage cancer and is receiving chemotherapy. The client tells the nurse “I want to discontinue treatment, but my children insist I continue”. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"It is your decision whether to continue chemotherapy."
"Your provider would not prescribe this treatment if it weren't necessary."
"Why don't you want to continue treatment?"
"Chemotherapy is your best chance for survival."
The Correct Answer is A
End-of-life care for clients with terminal illnesses such as end-stage cancer often involves complex emotional, ethical, and decision-making challenges. Clients may experience conflict between their personal wishes and family expectations regarding continued treatment. Nursing care in this context prioritizes autonomy, informed decision-making, and respect for patient rights. Therapeutic communication is essential to support the client’s values and reduce emotional distress.
A. This response correctly reinforces client autonomy and the right to make informed decisions about their own healthcare, including the decision to discontinue chemotherapy. It supports ethical principles of patient self-determination and helps the client feel empowered without external pressure. This is an appropriate therapeutic response.
B. This statement is not appropriate because it dismisses the client’s expressed feelings and shifts authority to the provider rather than supporting the client’s autonomy. It may also create pressure for the client to continue treatment without addressing their concerns or values. This response is nontherapeutic and may increase emotional distress.
C. Asking “Why don’t you want to continue treatment?” is a nontherapeutic communication technique because it may make the client feel defensive or pressured to justify their decision. In emotionally sensitive situations, “why” questions can inhibit open expression of feelings and reduce trust. A more supportive approach would encourage exploration of feelings without interrogation.
D. Stating that chemotherapy is the client’s best chance for survival is misleading and may be emotionally coercive. It focuses on treatment outcomes rather than the client’s values, goals, or quality of life preferences. This response does not respect informed choice and may increase guilt or pressure on the client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Monitoring glycemic control is essential for managing diabetes mellitus and preventing long-term complications such as neuropathy, retinopathy, and nephropathy. While daily blood glucose monitoring provides a "snapshot" of a client's sugar levels at a specific moment in time, it does not reflect how well the blood sugar has been managed over weeks or months. For a client who has been on a treatment plan for 3 months, providers look for a metric that represents the average blood glucose concentration over the entire lifespan of a red blood cell.
A. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects the average blood glucose level over the past 2 to 3 months by measuring the percentage of hemoglobin bound to glucose. It is the best indicator of long-term glycemic control and is used to evaluate how well a treatment plan is working over time. This makes it the most appropriate test in this scenario.
B. Oral glucose tolerance test results are used primarily to diagnose diabetes or impaired glucose tolerance rather than to monitor long-term control. It assesses how the body responds to a glucose load at a specific point in time, not overall long-term management. Therefore, it is not used for ongoing monitoring.
C. Fasting blood glucose level measures current blood sugar after a period of fasting and reflects short-term glycemic status. It can vary daily based on diet, stress, or illness, making it less reliable for long-term control assessment compared to HbA1c.
D. Postprandial blood glucose level measures blood sugar after meals and reflects short-term glucose control in response to food intake. While useful for daily management adjustments, it does not provide an overall picture of long-term glycemic control.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Acute pancreatitis can lead to severe abdominal pain due to inflammation of the pancreas and surrounding tissues. When a paralytic ileus is present, gastrointestinal motility is significantly reduced or absent, making oral medications ineffective or unsafe due to impaired absorption and risk of accumulation. Pain management in this condition requires potent, rapidly acting analgesics that bypass the gastrointestinal tract. Intravenous administration is preferred to ensure prompt and reliable pain relief.
A. IV hydromorphone is the most appropriate choice because it is a potent opioid analgesic administered intravenously, allowing rapid onset of action and reliable absorption. In the presence of paralytic ileus, oral or enteral routes are ineffective, making IV administration essential for adequate pain control in severe pancreatitis.
B. PO oxycodone is not appropriate because oral medications are not reliably absorbed in a client with paralytic ileus. Gastrointestinal motility is impaired, which prevents proper drug absorption and delays therapeutic effect. Additionally, oral intake may worsen nausea or abdominal distention.
C. Ibuprofen via NG tube is inappropriate because nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can increase the risk of gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding, particularly in a client with pancreatitis. Furthermore, NG administration is ineffective in paralytic ileus due to lack of gut motility and absorption.
D. A topical lidocaine patch is not suitable for managing severe visceral pain associated with acute pancreatitis. It provides only localized superficial analgesia and does not address deep abdominal inflammatory pain. Therefore, it is insufficient for an 8/10 pain level in this clinical situation.
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