A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Digoxin.
Calcium gluconate.
Vitamin Bs.
Propranolol.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside and is primarily used in the management of certain heart conditions, such as heart failure and atrial fibrillation. It is not indicated for hyperemesis gravidarum, which is severe and persistent vomiting during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Calcium gluconate is a mineral supplement used to treat calcium deficiencies. It is not a standard treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum.
Choice C rationale:
Vitamin Bs (B6 and B12) are commonly used to manage hyperemesis gravidarum. Vitamin B6, also known as pyridoxine, has been shown to alleviate nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. Vitamin B12 may also be administered to help manage symptoms. Both vitamins are safe to use during pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Propranolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure, heart conditions, and migraines. It is not recommended for managing hyperemesis gravidarum and is generally avoided during pregnancy due to potential risks to the developing fetus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Leaving the diaphragm in place for 4 hours following intercourse is incorrect. The diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Removing the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with the forefinger is incorrect. The diaphragm should be removed by hooking the finger behind the rim to avoid damaging the dome and ensure proper removal.
Choice C rationale:
Placing a thin layer of mineral oil on the diaphragm once per week is incorrect. Mineral oil can weaken latex diaphragms, reducing their effectiveness. Water-based lubricants are recommended for use with diaphragms.
Choice D rationale:
Placing 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before insertion is the correct technique. Spermicide helps to immobilize and kill sperm, enhancing the contraceptive effect of the diaphragm.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not provide information about the fetal head's position in the left occiput posterior position. Station refers to the level of the presenting part in relation to the ischial spines, not the position.
Choice B rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not indicate that the largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet. The station only tells us the level of the presenting part and does not provide information about the diameter passing through the pelvic outlet.
Choice C rationale:
The clinical finding of 0 station does not directly involve the palpability of the posterior fontanel. Station is determined based on the level of the presenting part in the birth canal.
Choice D rationale:
This is the correct interpretation of the clinical finding. 0 station means that the presenting part (usually the baby's head) is at the level of the ischial spines, which serves as a reference point during labor. As labor progresses and the baby moves further down the birth canal, the station becomes more negative (e.g., -1, -2) until delivery occurs.
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