A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Digoxin.
Calcium gluconate.
Vitamin Bs.
Propranolol.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside and is primarily used in the management of certain heart conditions, such as heart failure and atrial fibrillation. It is not indicated for hyperemesis gravidarum, which is severe and persistent vomiting during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Calcium gluconate is a mineral supplement used to treat calcium deficiencies. It is not a standard treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum.
Choice C rationale:
Vitamin Bs (B6 and B12) are commonly used to manage hyperemesis gravidarum. Vitamin B6, also known as pyridoxine, has been shown to alleviate nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. Vitamin B12 may also be administered to help manage symptoms. Both vitamins are safe to use during pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Propranolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure, heart conditions, and migraines. It is not recommended for managing hyperemesis gravidarum and is generally avoided during pregnancy due to potential risks to the developing fetus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Multiparity, or having given birth to multiple children, is associated with a decreased risk of ovarian cancer, not an increased risk. The protective effect may be due to the repeated ovulatory cycles that occur during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale:
Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus. It is associated with an increased risk of ovarian cancer. The exact link is not fully understood, but it is believed that the inflammatory and hormonal changes in endometriosis may contribute to cancer development.
Choice C rationale:
Being under 40 years of age does not increase the risk of ovarian cancer. Advanced age is a known risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence occurring in women over 60.
Choice D rationale:
Use of contraceptive medications, particularly oral contraceptives, has been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer. These medications suppress ovulation and decrease the exposure of the ovaries to potential carcinogens.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
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