A nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
Elevated amylase and lipase
Decreased bilirubin
Elevated hemoglobin
Decreased calcium
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Elevated amylase and lipase are hallmark findings in acute pancreatitis. Pancreatic inflammation causes enzyme leakage into the bloodstream, with amylase and lipase levels rising within hours of onset. These enzymes digest carbohydrates and fats, respectively, and their elevation confirms pancreatic injury, aiding diagnosis alongside clinical symptoms like abdominal pain.
Choice B reason: Decreased bilirubin is not typical in acute pancreatitis. Bilirubin may rise if pancreatitis causes biliary obstruction, but this is not a primary finding. The condition primarily affects pancreatic enzymes, not liver function markers like bilirubin, unless complications like gallstone pancreatitis or bile duct compression occur, which are secondary issues.
Choice C reason: Elevated hemoglobin is not expected in acute pancreatitis. Hemoglobin may decrease due to inflammation, bleeding, or fluid shifts causing hemodilution. Pancreatitis does not stimulate erythropoiesis or concentrate blood, so elevated hemoglobin is more likely in dehydration or other conditions, not a primary feature of pancreatic inflammation.
Choice D reason: Decreased calcium is common in acute pancreatitis due to fat necrosis and saponification, where calcium binds to fatty acids released from damaged pancreatic tissue. This reduces serum calcium levels, potentially causing hypocalcemia. Monitoring is critical, as low calcium can lead to neuromuscular irritability or cardiac complications in severe cases.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A","dropdown-group-3":"C"}
Explanation
A. Pneumocystis pneumonia is a common opportunistic infection in HIV+ patients, particularly when CD4 counts fall below 200 cells/mm³, signaling severe immunosuppression. This aligns with the patient’s HIV+ status, as opportunistic infections exploit weakened immune systems. The DSM-5 does not directly address physical infections but notes that medical conditions like HIV can exacerbate mental health issues, which may be relevant in holistic care.
B. Tuberculosis is an opportunistic infection in HIV+ patients, often occurring at CD4 counts below 350 cells/mm³. However, it is less specific than Pneumocystis pneumonia as a hallmark of AIDS-defining illness in HIV+ patients, making it a less precise choice for this context.
C. Influenza is not typically an opportunistic infection in HIV+ patients. It affects immunocompetent individuals and does not specifically indicate HIV-related immunosuppression, making this choice incorrect.
D. Pneumocystis jirovecii is the causative organism of Pneumocystis pneumonia, directly linked to the opportunistic infection in HIV+ patients. This fungal pathogen thrives in immunocompromised hosts, aligning with the patient’s condition.
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis, which is an opportunistic infection in HIV+ patients but less commonly the primary indicator compared to Pneumocystis jirovecii for Pneumocystis pneumonia, making it less accurate here.
F. Influenza virus causes influenza, which is not an opportunistic infection specific to HIV+ patients. This makes it an incorrect choice for the causative organism.
G. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is the first-line treatment for Pneumocystis pneumonia in HIV+ patients, effectively targeting Pneumocystis jirovecii. It is widely recommended in clinical guidelines for both treatment and prophylaxis, fitting the patient’s needs.
H. Isoniazid is used for tuberculosis treatment or prophylaxis, not Pneumocystis pneumonia. Since the correct infection is Pneumocystis pneumonia, this choice is inappropriate.
I. Oseltamivir treats influenza, which is not an opportunistic infection in HIV+ patients, making this an incorrect treatment option for the context of the question.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Blood pressure of 104/72 mm Hg, pulse of 80, and respiratory rate of 16 are within normal ranges for a postoperative patient. These vital signs indicate stable hemodynamic status and adequate oxygenation. Opioids may slightly lower blood pressure or respiratory rate, but these values do not suggest distress or complications requiring immediate provider notification. The patient’s condition appears stable, with no critical abnormalities warranting urgent intervention.
Choice B reason: Blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg, pulse of 70, and respiratory rate of 14 are normal for a postoperative patient. These parameters reflect stable cardiovascular and respiratory function. Opioids can cause mild respiratory depression, but a rate of 14 is acceptable. No signs of opioid overdose, hypotension, or tachycardia are present, indicating no need for immediate provider contact or intervention.
Choice C reason: Blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg, pulse of 120, and respiratory rate of 18 indicate potential opioid-related complications or postoperative issues like hypovolemia or shock. Hypotension and tachycardia suggest inadequate perfusion, possibly due to bleeding or opioid-induced vasodilation. These signs require immediate provider notification to assess for overdose, hemorrhage, or other serious conditions affecting systemic circulation and tissue oxygenation.
Choice D reason: Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg, pulse of 100, and respiratory rate of 20 are within acceptable ranges, though the pulse is slightly elevated. This could reflect pain or mild stress but does not indicate critical instability. Opioids may cause mild tachycardia, but these vital signs do not necessitate immediate provider contact as they suggest stable physiological function without severe complications.
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