A nurse is caring for a patient receiving external beam radiation therapy for pancreatic cancer.
Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for based on the location of radiation treatment?
Increased appetite.
Weight gain.
Koplik spots.
Diarrhea.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Radiation therapy for pancreatic cancer typically causes a decrease in appetite, known as anorexia, rather than an increase. The radiation affects the gastric and intestinal mucosa, leading to the release of cytokines that suppress the hunger center in the hypothalamus. Furthermore, the tumor itself and the localized inflammatory response in the abdomen often result in early satiety and nausea, making an increased appetite a highly unlikely finding during this treatment.
Choice B rationale
Weight gain is not expected during radiation for pancreatic cancer; instead, weight loss is a hallmark side effect. The combination of malabsorption due to pancreatic insufficiency and the systemic effects of radiation therapy leads to a catabolic state. Patients often struggle to maintain their caloric intake because of gastrointestinal distress and metabolic changes. Monitoring for weight loss is crucial, as significant drops can impair the patient's ability to tolerate the full course of treatment.
Choice C rationale
Koplik spots are small, white spots on the buccal mucosa that are pathognomonic for measles. They have no physiological connection to radiation therapy or pancreatic cancer. This finding would indicate a viral infection rather than a side effect of localized external beam radiation to the abdomen. The nurse focuses on skin integrity within the radiation field and systemic gastrointestinal symptoms rather than assessing for signs of unrelated infectious childhood diseases like rubeola.
Choice D rationale
External beam radiation to the pancreas involves the delivery of high-energy rays that inevitably pass through the small and large intestines. This causes radiation enteritis, where the rapidly dividing cells of the intestinal lining are damaged, leading to inflammation and impaired fluid absorption. Diarrhea is a frequent and expected adverse effect of this localized treatment. The nurse must monitor stool frequency and consistency while assessing for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Diarrhea is not a primary or life-threatening complication associated with medications that stimulate platelet production, such as oprelvekin or thrombopoietin receptor agonists. While gastrointestinal upset can occur with many medications, it does not represent the significant physiological risks targeted by nursing surveillance in this specific therapy. The focus of monitoring for these agents is centered on fluid balance and vascular integrity, as these drugs significantly impact intravascular osmotic pressure and the coagulation cascade through increased cellular production.
Choice B rationale
Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of many systemic therapies but are not considered the most critical or specific complications of platelet-stimulating agents. These symptoms are generally managed with antiemetics and do not typically require the cessation of therapy. When managing a patient on oprelvekin, the nurse prioritizes monitoring for systemic inflammatory responses and fluid retention over mild gastrointestinal distress, as the latter does not usually lead to long-term morbidity or acute cardiovascular collapse in this context.
Choice C rationale
Stimulating the production of platelets, or thrombopoiesis, carries a significant risk of inducing a prothrombotic state where blood clots may form. When the platelet count rises rapidly or exceeds the normal range of 150,000 to 450,000 cells/uL, the risk for deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, or myocardial infarction increases. The nurse must assess for signs of vascular occlusion, including localized edema, redness, and sudden chest pain, as the increased cell density enhances blood viscosity and clotting.
Choice D rationale
Bone fractures are not a typical complication of platelet-stimulating therapy. While some colony-stimulating factors can cause bone pain due to the expansion of bone marrow, they do not generally lead to acute structural failure or pathological fractures. Bone marrow stimulation is a physiological process that occurs within the medullary cavity and, while uncomfortable, does not degrade the mineral density of the cortical bone. Nursing care focuses on pain management rather than fall precautions related to skeletal fragility in these patients.
Choice E rationale
Pulmonary edema is a severe complication specifically linked to oprelvekin therapy due to its tendency to cause sodium and water retention. The resulting expansion of plasma volume increases hydrostatic pressure within the pulmonary capillaries, leading to fluid shifting into the alveoli. The nurse must monitor for dyspnea, crackles upon auscultation, and decreased oxygen saturation. This fluid shift can lead to acute respiratory distress syndrome, making frequent cardiovascular and respiratory assessments essential for early detection of fluid overload.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cyclosporine is a lipophilic polypeptide that requires consistent administration in relation to food to ensure stable plasma concentrations. Variations in fat content within meals can significantly alter the bioavailability and absorption rate of the drug. By maintaining a consistent intake pattern, either always with food or always without, the patient avoids dangerous fluctuations in therapeutic levels. This consistency is vital to prevent graft rejection caused by subtherapeutic levels or toxicity caused by supratherapeutic levels.
Choice B rationale
Pulmonary status and coughing are not primary monitoring parameters specifically linked to the unique side effect profile of cyclosporine therapy. While general immunosuppression increases the risk of opportunistic infections like pneumonia, cyclosporine does not typically cause direct pulmonary toxicity. The nurse should focus more on renal, hepatic, and neurological assessments. Monitoring for a cough might be more relevant for patients on ACE inhibitors or those with specific fungal risks, rather than a standard cyclosporine protocol.
Choice C rationale
Nephrotoxicity is the most serious and common adverse effect of cyclosporine therapy, occurring in up to 75 percent of patients. The drug causes dose-dependent constriction of the afferent arterioles in the kidney, leading to decreased renal blood flow and a reduced glomerular filtration rate. Normal serum creatinine levels range from 0.7 to 1.3 mg/dL. The nurse must monitor for elevations in creatinine and BUN to distinguish between drug-induced renal damage and potential organ transplant rejection.
Choice D rationale
Hirsutism and gingival hyperplasia are well-documented side effects of cyclosporine that affect patient appearance and oral health. Hirsutism involves the growth of excess body hair, while gingival hyperplasia is the overgrowth of gum tissue around the teeth. These conditions can lead to significant body image distress and dental complications. The nurse should encourage meticulous oral hygiene and frequent dental checkups to manage tissue overgrowth and prevent secondary infections or tooth loss associated with these side effects.
Choice E rationale
Administering cyclosporine without food is not a mandatory requirement, but consistency is the priority. Some protocols allow for administration on an empty stomach to achieve faster peak levels, but this often causes gastrointestinal upset. The most critical factor is that the method chosen by the patient remains identical every day. Switching between taking it with a large meal and taking it on an empty stomach causes unpredictable absorption, making it difficult to maintain the narrow therapeutic window.
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