A nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone a kidney transplant and is receiving cyclosporine as part of their immunosuppressive therapy.
Which of the following should the nurse include in the care plan? Select all that apply.
Administer medication with consistent food intake.
Watch for changes in pulmonary status and cough.
Monitor for nephrotoxicity.
Monitor for hirsutism and gingival hyperplasia.
Administer without food.
Correct Answer : A,C,D
Choice A rationale
Cyclosporine is a lipophilic polypeptide that requires consistent administration in relation to food to ensure stable plasma concentrations. Variations in fat content within meals can significantly alter the bioavailability and absorption rate of the drug. By maintaining a consistent intake pattern, either always with food or always without, the patient avoids dangerous fluctuations in therapeutic levels. This consistency is vital to prevent graft rejection caused by subtherapeutic levels or toxicity caused by supratherapeutic levels.
Choice B rationale
Pulmonary status and coughing are not primary monitoring parameters specifically linked to the unique side effect profile of cyclosporine therapy. While general immunosuppression increases the risk of opportunistic infections like pneumonia, cyclosporine does not typically cause direct pulmonary toxicity. The nurse should focus more on renal, hepatic, and neurological assessments. Monitoring for a cough might be more relevant for patients on ACE inhibitors or those with specific fungal risks, rather than a standard cyclosporine protocol.
Choice C rationale
Nephrotoxicity is the most serious and common adverse effect of cyclosporine therapy, occurring in up to 75 percent of patients. The drug causes dose-dependent constriction of the afferent arterioles in the kidney, leading to decreased renal blood flow and a reduced glomerular filtration rate. Normal serum creatinine levels range from 0.7 to 1.3 mg/dL. The nurse must monitor for elevations in creatinine and BUN to distinguish between drug-induced renal damage and potential organ transplant rejection.
Choice D rationale
Hirsutism and gingival hyperplasia are well-documented side effects of cyclosporine that affect patient appearance and oral health. Hirsutism involves the growth of excess body hair, while gingival hyperplasia is the overgrowth of gum tissue around the teeth. These conditions can lead to significant body image distress and dental complications. The nurse should encourage meticulous oral hygiene and frequent dental checkups to manage tissue overgrowth and prevent secondary infections or tooth loss associated with these side effects.
Choice E rationale
Administering cyclosporine without food is not a mandatory requirement, but consistency is the priority. Some protocols allow for administration on an empty stomach to achieve faster peak levels, but this often causes gastrointestinal upset. The most critical factor is that the method chosen by the patient remains identical every day. Switching between taking it with a large meal and taking it on an empty stomach causes unpredictable absorption, making it difficult to maintain the narrow therapeutic window.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Extravasation of vesicant chemotherapy agents triggers immediate cellular damage and localized inflammatory responses. Stopping the infusion prevents further tissue exposure to toxic compounds that cause necrosis. Notification of the provider is essential to initiate specific antidote protocols or surgical consultation. Physical assessment determines the extent of the injury, which is critical for documentation and intervention planning. This priority action minimizes long term morbidity and functional loss at the peripheral or central venous access site.
Choice B rationale
Antiemetics are pharmacological agents used to manage chemotherapy induced nausea and vomiting by blocking neurotransmitters like serotonin or dopamine in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. While supportive care is important during oncological treatment, administering these medications does not address the acute mechanical or chemical injury occurring at the intravenous site. Continuing the infusion while the patient reports pain and swelling would exacerbate tissue destruction and potentially lead to compartment syndrome or permanent nerve damage.
Choice C rationale
Continuing a chemotherapy infusion when signs of infiltration or extravasation are present violates safety standards and increases the volume of vesicant in the interstitial space. Warm compresses are contraindicated for certain chemotherapeutic agents, such as vinca alkaloids, because heat can increase local blood flow and spread the toxic drug further into surrounding tissues. Initial management must prioritize cessation of the causative agent rather than symptom masking through thermal applications which might worsen the chemical burn.
Choice D rationale
Aspiration of residual drug from the cannula is a recognized component of extravasation management, but it must never be performed while the infusion is active. Attempting to aspirate without stopping the pump allows the machine to continue forcing fluid into the subcutaneous tissue under pressure. The sequence of nursing actions must always begin with stopping the flow of the hazardous substance to limit the radius of the injury before attempting to remove the fluid.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Metastasis is a defining characteristic of malignancy, not benignancy. Benign tumors remain localized to their site of origin and do not possess the genetic mutations or enzymatic capabilities, such as collagenase production, required to breach basement membranes and enter the lymphatic or circulatory systems. Scientifically, the absence of secondary tumor deposits in distant organs is a key diagnostic factor that clinicians use when reviewing pathology reports and imaging to determine the severity of a neoplasm.
Choice B rationale
Undifferentiated cells and high mitotic activity are classic markers of malignant transformation, known as anaplasia. Benign tumors generally consist of well-differentiated cells that closely resemble the parent tissue from which they arose. Their mitotic index is typically low, meaning cells divide at a rate similar to normal tissue. In contrast, malignant cells exhibit pleomorphism, large hyperchromatic nuclei, and frequent, often abnormal, mitotic figures, which signify a loss of cellular regulation and aggressive growth patterns.
Choice C rationale
Benign tumors are characterized by high levels of cellular differentiation and the presence of a fibrous capsule. This encapsulation prevents the tumor from infiltrating surrounding healthy tissues, creating a clear surgical plane that facilitates complete excision. Histologically, these cells maintain the functional and structural characteristics of the original tissue. This lack of invasiveness distinguishes them from malignant tumors, which grow by expansion and infiltration, often lacking a defined border and making surgical removal significantly more complex.
Choice D rationale
Benign tumors are typically slow-growing and do not usually lead to rapid clinical deterioration unless they are located in a critical area, such as the brain, where they might increase intracranial pressure. Aggressive growth and systemic wasting, or cachexia, are hallmarks of malignant processes. Malignant cells compete with healthy cells for nutrients and oxygen, often leading to significant metabolic shifts and the eventual failure of organ systems. Benign growths are generally considered non-threatening regarding immediate survival.
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