A nurse is conversing with a client who has gout.
The nurse should teach the client to avoid which of the following beverages?
Whole milk.
Orange juice.
Cherry juice.
Organic wine.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Whole milk contains proteins like lactalbumin and casein which may actually help in the excretion of uric acid from the body. While it contains fats, low-fat or full-fat dairy is generally considered safe or even beneficial for gout patients because it does not contain high levels of purines. Therefore, avoiding milk is not a primary recommendation for managing gout symptoms or preventing painful flare-ups in the joints.
Choice B rationale
Orange juice is high in fructose, which can increase uric acid production by accelerating the breakdown of adenosine triphosphate. However, it is not as detrimental as alcoholic beverages or high-purine liquids. While monitoring fructose intake is wise for gout management, orange juice is typically not the first beverage a nurse would instruct a client to strictly avoid compared to alcohol, which has a much more significant impact on renal uric acid clearance.
Choice C rationale
Cherry juice is actually recommended for clients with gout because it contains anthocyanins which have potent anti-inflammatory properties. Studies suggest that cherry consumption is associated with a lower risk of gout attacks because it helps lower serum urate levels. Teaching a client to avoid cherry juice would be counterproductive to their treatment plan, as it is a natural remedy often used to decrease the frequency of painful inflammatory episodes.
Choice D rationale
Organic wine contains alcohol which is a major trigger for gout flares because it competes with uric acid for excretion in the kidneys. When the kidneys prioritize processing alcohol, uric acid levels rise in the blood, leading to crystal formation in the joints. Even organic versions contain ethanol, which increases purine nucleotide metabolism. Alcohol consumption also leads to dehydration, which further concentrates uric acid and facilitates the crystallization process.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Ensuring all food is soft is an intervention for patients with dysphagia or chewing difficulties, not necessarily for those with visual impairment. While safety is important, restricted textures are only required if a swallowing or dental issue is present. For a visually impaired client, the focus should be on maintaining autonomy and nutritional variety. Unnecessarily altering food consistency can decrease the client's appetite and sense of independence during meals.
Choice B rationale
Serving hot food as quickly as possible is a general standard for food quality but does not address the specific needs of a visually impaired individual. In fact, extremely hot food can be a safety hazard if the client cannot see where the steam or heat is coming from. The priority should be on safe orientation to the tray and providing a clear description of the meal's layout to prevent accidental burns or spills.
Choice C rationale
Describing the location of food items using the numbers on a clock face is a standard and effective rehabilitative technique. This method allows the client to visualize the plate and promotes independence by letting them feed themselves. For example, the nurse might state that the meat is at 6 o'clock and the vegetables are at 2 o'clock. This specific communication strategy enhances the client's spatial awareness and mealtime experience.
Choice D rationale
Leaving the tray on the bedside table without further intervention is negligent for a client with significant visual impairment. Without assistance in identifying the food or its location, the client may be unable to eat, leading to malnutrition or dehydration. Furthermore, it increases the risk of spills and accidents. Proper nursing care involves active engagement to ensure the client is oriented to the environment and can safely consume their meal.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Sputtering is an irregular, choppy sound often associated with mechanical issues or rapid, inconsistent bursts of noise. It is not a standard clinical descriptor for tinnitus. Tinnitus usually involves a more continuous or rhythmic perception of sound generated internally. Sputtering does not accurately reflect the typical neurosensory experience of patients suffering from the aberrant neural activity found in auditory pathways during tinnitus episodes.
Choice B rationale
Buzzing is a classic and frequent description used by clients experiencing tinnitus. This condition involves the perception of sound in the absence of an external acoustic stimulus. The buzzing sound is thought to result from spontaneous neural activity or maladaptive plasticity in the auditory cortex. Patients may also describe this as ringing, hissing, or roaring, indicating a disruption in the normal processing of sound within the ear.
Choice C rationale
Loud is a descriptor of volume or intensity rather than the specific quality or character of a sound. While tinnitus can be perceived as loud and distressing, the term does not help the nurse identify the nature of the auditory hallucination. Clinical assessment of tinnitus focuses on the timbre and pitch of the phantom noise to better understand the underlying cause, such as hearing loss or vascular issues.
Choice D rationale
Muffled refers to a decrease in the clarity or sharpness of external sounds, often described as hearing through cotton. This is typically a symptom of conductive hearing loss or an obstruction in the ear canal, such as cerumen impaction. Muffled hearing represents a deficit in sound transmission rather than the presence of an internally generated sound like buzzing, which is the hallmark of the tinnitus experience.
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