A nurse is giving a report to their supervisor. Which of the following indicates a need for client care to be transferred to a registered nurse?
The client is experiencing a therapeutic effect from their treatment.
The client needs strict measurement of intake and output.
The client develops a postoperative fever.
The client needs routine wound care performed.
The Correct Answer is C
Delegation and assignment of nursing care depend on client stability and the level of clinical judgment required. Postoperative clients may range from stable and predictable to unstable with potential complications requiring assessment and intervention by a registered nurse. A postoperative fever may indicate infection, inflammatory response, or more serious complications such as sepsis or atelectasis. Escalation to a higher level of nursing care is necessary when findings suggest potential clinical deterioration requiring advanced assessment and decision-making.
Rationale:
A. A client experiencing a therapeutic effect from treatment is considered stable and predictable. This indicates that the current plan of care is effective and no immediate escalation in nursing level is required. Such clients can typically continue to be managed within the current care assignment.
B. Strict measurement of intake and output is a routine, standardized nursing task that can be delegated appropriately depending on facility policy and client stability. It does not require advanced clinical judgment unless there are additional complications. Therefore, it does not indicate the need for transfer to a registered nurse.
C. Development of a postoperative fever requires reassessment by a registered nurse because it may indicate infection, atelectasis, or other complications. In a postoperative client, fever is an abnormal finding that requires clinical judgment, evaluation of trends, and possible intervention such as cultures or imaging. This level of assessment exceeds the scope of routine care assignment and warrants RN management.
D. Routine wound care is a predictable and standardized intervention that can often be delegated depending on the complexity of the wound and client condition. It does not inherently require RN-level assessment unless complications such as infection or dehiscence are present. Therefore, it is not a priority reason for care transfer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Placenta previa is a pregnancy complication in which the placenta implants low in the uterus and partially or completely covers the cervical os. This abnormal positioning can lead to painless vaginal bleeding, especially in the second or third trimester as the cervix begins to efface and dilate. The condition poses a risk for maternal hemorrhage and fetal compromise due to disruption of placental attachment. Clinical management focuses on bleeding assessment, fetal monitoring, and preventing further cervical irritation.
Rationale:
A. Bright red vaginal bleeding is the hallmark finding of Placenta previa. The bleeding is typically painless and results from placental separation as the lower uterine segment stretches. The bright red color indicates fresh arterial bleeding, which is a key distinguishing feature from other obstetric emergencies.
B. A rigid abdomen is more commonly associated with placental abruption rather than placenta previa. In abruption, the placenta detaches prematurely, causing uterine tenderness and a board-like abdomen. Placenta previa typically presents without abdominal pain or uterine rigidity.
C. Increased fetal movement is not a typical finding in placenta previa and does not indicate pathology specific to this condition. Fetal movement patterns may vary but are not diagnostic or expected as a clinical sign of placenta previa. In severe cases of bleeding, fetal activity may actually decrease due to hypoxia.
D. Persistent uterine contractions are not characteristic of placenta previa. The uterus is usually soft and non-tender, and contractions are not a defining feature. If contractions occur, they may suggest labor or another obstetric complication rather than placenta previa.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Administration of liquid iron supplements such as Ferrous sulfate in children requires specific teaching to improve absorption and reduce adverse effects. Iron is commonly prescribed for iron deficiency anemia and is best absorbed in an acidic environment, but it can cause staining of teeth and gastrointestinal irritation. Proper administration techniques help improve adherence while minimizing side effects and cosmetic concerns.
Rationale:
A. Giving liquid iron through a straw is appropriate because it helps minimize contact with the teeth and reduces the risk of permanent tooth staining. Ferrous sulfate can discolor enamel, so using a straw and brushing teeth afterward are recommended strategies. This demonstrates correct understanding of safe administration techniques.
B. Giving iron with milk is incorrect because calcium in milk interferes with iron absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. Dairy products bind to iron and reduce its bioavailability, making treatment less effective. Iron should be given with water or vitamin C-rich fluids instead.
C. Mild nausea is a common side effect of iron supplementation and does not require notifying the provider. Gastrointestinal discomfort can often be managed by giving the medication with food (if tolerated) or adjusting timing. Only severe or persistent symptoms would warrant provider notification.
D. Tarry stools are an expected and harmless side effect of oral iron therapy due to unabsorbed iron in the gastrointestinal tract. This change in stool color does not indicate bleeding when the client is taking iron supplements. Parents should be reassured that this is a normal finding.
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