A nurse is planning to reinforce teaching to a client about routine prenatal laboratory testing.
Which of the following information should the nurse include about the glucose challenge screening?
The test will be performed between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation.
The client will be NPO after ingesting the glucose beverage.
The client will have three labs drawn on the day of the screening.
The expected range for this screening is less than 140 mg/dL.
The glucose tolerance test can be performed the same day as the glucose challenge test.
The screening will take approximately 1 hr to complete.
Correct Answer : D,E
Choice A rationale
Screening for gestational diabetes typically occurs between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation. Performing the test between 15 and 20 weeks is generally too early because insulin resistance, driven by placental hormones like human placental lactogen, significantly increases during the second half of pregnancy. Testing during the 15 to 20 week window is usually reserved for clients with high risk factors like obesity or a history of gestational diabetes, rather than being a routine screening for all clients.
Choice B rationale
The glucose challenge test does not require the client to be NPO after ingesting the glucose beverage or before the test starts. Unlike the diagnostic three hour glucose tolerance test, this initial screening is non-fasting. The client drinks a 50 gram oral glucose solution, and their blood is drawn exactly one hour later. Restricting oral intake during the waiting period is unnecessary and does not align with the standard protocol for this specific one hour screening procedure used in prenatal care.
Choice C rationale
This screening involves only a single blood draw, which occurs one hour after the administration of the glucose load. Multiple laboratory draws, specifically four separate blood collections, are characteristic of the follow-up three hour diagnostic glucose tolerance test. The one hour challenge is designed as a simplified, efficient screening tool to identify women who require further, more intensive diagnostic testing. Expecting three blood draws for a routine one hour screening is incorrect based on current obstetric clinical practice guidelines.
Choice D rationale
A blood glucose level of less than 140 mg/dL is considered a passing result for the one hour glucose challenge test. If the plasma glucose level is 140 mg/dL or higher, it indicates a positive screen, necessitating a follow-up three hour diagnostic glucose tolerance test. This threshold is scientifically established to balance sensitivity and specificity in detecting gestational diabetes mellitus. Normal fasting blood glucose for pregnant women is typically between 60 and 105 mg/dL to maintain fetal growth.
Choice E rationale
The glucose tolerance test is a separate diagnostic procedure and is not performed on the same day as the glucose challenge screening. If a client fails the one hour screening, they are scheduled for the three hour diagnostic test on a different day. The diagnostic test requires specific preparation, including a three day period of unrestricted carbohydrate intake followed by an overnight fast. Combining these tests on the same day would provide inaccurate results and violate the physiological requirements for diagnostic accuracy.
Choice F rationale
The glucose challenge screening is designed to be completed in approximately one hour. After the client consumes the standardized 50 gram glucose drink, there is a sixty minute waiting period before the venous blood sample is collected. This timeframe allows the body to process the glucose load, reflecting the efficiency of maternal insulin production and utilization. Because it is a relatively quick procedure compared to diagnostic testing, it is an ideal screening tool for use during routine prenatal visits.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
During the early stages of human development, before the placenta is fully functional, the yolk sac serves as the primary source of nutrients and gas exchange for the embryo. It also plays a vital role in early hematopoiesis, which is the formation of blood cells. This structure is essential for sustaining the growing life during the first few weeks after conception until the uteroplacental circulation is sufficiently established to take over the nutritional demands.
Choice B rationale
The allantois is a structural diverticulum that appears early in embryonic development, but its primary role is not the direct provision of nutrients. Instead, it contributes to the formation of the umbilical cord blood vessels and the development of the urinary bladder. While it is crucial for the eventual vascular connection between the embryo and the mother, it does not act as a nutrient reservoir in the same way the yolk sac functions during early gestation.
Choice C rationale
The chorion is the outermost fetal membrane that eventually contributes to the formation of the fetal portion of the placenta. Its primary function involves the protection of the embryo and the secretion of human chorionic gonadotropin to maintain the corpus luteum. While it is essential for establishing the interface for nutrient exchange, the chorion itself is a membrane structure rather than the specific entity that provides nutritional stores to the developing embryo in its earliest stages.
Choice D rationale
The amnion is the inner fetal membrane that forms the amniotic sac, which surrounds the embryo and fills with amniotic fluid. This fluid provides a sterile, protective environment, allows for symmetrical growth, and helps maintain a constant temperature. However, the amnion and the fluid it contains do not provide nutrients to the embryo. Nutrient delivery is managed by the yolk sac and subsequently by the placenta once the villi are fully developed and integrated.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
In the context of an inevitable abortion, the presence of an infection such as chorioamnionitis or sepsis is a major contraindication to certain medical interventions like expectant management. Infection requires immediate stabilization with broad-spectrum antibiotics and prompt evacuation of the uterus to prevent systemic inflammatory response syndrome. Normal white blood cell counts range from 5,000 to 10,000 cells/mm; elevations significantly above this indicate an active inflammatory process that necessitates urgent surgical rather than medical pathways.
Choice B rationale
Intermittent bleeding is an expected clinical manifestation of an inevitable abortion and is not a contraindication to medical intervention. The process involves the cervical os dilating and the products of conception beginning to detach, which naturally results in varying degrees of hemorrhage. As long as the patient remains hemodynamically stable and the bleeding is not excessive, medical management or observation can continue. It does not preclude the use of medications to assist the process.
Choice C rationale
A history of a bleeding disorder, such as von Willebrand disease or hemophilia, is a contraindication to medical management of an abortion because medications like misoprostol can cause heavy uterine contractions and significant blood loss. Without normal clotting factors, the client is at extreme risk for life-threatening hemorrhage during the expulsion of the products of conception. Such cases usually require a controlled surgical environment where hemostasis can be more effectively managed and monitored by the surgical team.
Choice D rationale
Intense pain is a subjective symptom frequently associated with the uterine contractions and cervical dilation occurring during an inevitable abortion. While pain management is a priority for nursing care, the presence of pain itself does not contraindicate medical interventions. In fact, medical management aims to complete the process that is causing the pain. Pain should be assessed using standardized scales and treated appropriately with analgesics while the medical or surgical intervention proceeds.
Choice E rationale
Anemia is a contraindication to medical management because the process of expelling the products of conception often involves significant blood loss. A client with a baseline low hemoglobin, typically defined as less than 11 g/dL in pregnancy, has less physiological reserve to tolerate further hemorrhage. Medical interventions that may prolong bleeding increase the risk of the client requiring a blood transfusion or developing hypovolemic shock, making surgical evacuation a safer, more definitive option.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
