A nurse is providing teaching to an antepartum client who has a new diagnosis of genital herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2). Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Taking antiviral medications will cure the condition.
HSV-2 is not harmful to a developing fetus.
Transmission to the newborn is higher if lesions are present at birth.
Wear tight-fitting undergarments when lesions are present.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Although antiviral medications such as acyclovir or valacyclovir can suppress viral replication and reduce the frequency, duration, and severity of outbreaks, they do not eliminate the virus from the body. Genital herpes simplex virus (HSV-2) infection is a chronic, lifelong condition for which there is currently no known cure, therefore, medication will only manage the symptoms.
Choice B rationale
Genital herpes simplex virus (HSV-2) can be transmitted vertically from mother to fetus or newborn, particularly during a primary infection in pregnancy or during vaginal birth. Neonatal herpes infection can be severe or fatal, causing disseminated disease, central nervous system involvement, or mucocutaneous lesions, thus, it is a significant risk to the developing fetus/newborn.
Choice C rationale
The risk of neonatal transmission of HSV-2 is significantly higher (around 25.
Choice D rationale
Wearing tight-fitting undergarments can increase heat and moisture in the genital area, leading to friction and irritation of the lesions, which can prolong healing and increase discomfort during an outbreak. Clients are advised to wear loose-fitting cotton undergarments to keep the area dry and promote air circulation, which helps with lesion healing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The cervix being closed and thick at 42 weeks gestation is unfavorable and increases the risk for labor complications. At this stage, the cervix should ideally be effaced and dilated to allow for labor progression. A closed, thick cervix indicates poor readiness for labor, which may necessitate induction with cervical ripening agents. Failure of the cervix to ripen increases the risk of prolonged labor, failed induction, and cesarean delivery, making this a significant complication risk factor.
Choice B rationale: Being at 42 weeks gestation is post-term, which increases the risk for labor complications. Post-term pregnancy is associated with oligohydramnios, macrosomia, meconium aspiration, and placental insufficiency. These conditions can lead to fetal distress, shoulder dystocia, and increased rates of operative delivery. Therefore, advanced gestational age beyond 41 weeks is a recognized risk factor for complications, requiring close monitoring and often induction of labor to reduce maternal and neonatal morbidity.
Choice C rationale: A fetal heart rate of 150/min is within the normal baseline range of 110 to 160 beats per minute. This indicates adequate fetal oxygenation and no evidence of tachycardia or bradycardia. Since the FHR is normal and reassuring, it does not increase the risk for labor complications. Continuous monitoring is still important, but this specific finding is not a complication risk factor.
Choice D rationale: Clear to white mucus-like vaginal discharge is a normal physiologic finding in pregnancy, known as leukorrhea. It results from increased estrogen and cervical gland activity. This type of discharge is not associated with infection, rupture of membranes, or preterm labor. Since it is expected and benign, it does not increase the risk for labor complications. Only abnormal discharges such as foul-smelling, green, or bloody secretions would be concerning.
Choice E rationale: Vertex presentation, specifically left occiput anterior, is the most favorable fetal position for vaginal delivery. It allows for optimal alignment of the fetal head with the maternal pelvis, facilitating descent and rotation during labor. Malpresentations such as breech or transverse would increase the risk for complications, but vertex LOA is ideal. Therefore, this finding is favorable and does not increase the risk for labor complications.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Step 1 is: Start with the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP): July 21st.
Step 2 is: Subtract 3 months: July minus 3 months is April.
Step 3 is: Add 7 days to the LMP day: 21 plus 7 days is the 28th.
Step 4 is: Add 1 year: April 28th of the following year. Final calculated answer: April 28th.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
