A nurse is providing teaching to an antepartum client who has a new diagnosis of genital herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2). Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Taking antiviral medications will cure the condition.
HSV-2 is not harmful to a developing fetus.
Transmission to the newborn is higher if lesions are present at birth.
Wear tight-fitting undergarments when lesions are present.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Although antiviral medications such as acyclovir or valacyclovir can suppress viral replication and reduce the frequency, duration, and severity of outbreaks, they do not eliminate the virus from the body. Genital herpes simplex virus (HSV-2) infection is a chronic, lifelong condition for which there is currently no known cure, therefore, medication will only manage the symptoms.
Choice B rationale
Genital herpes simplex virus (HSV-2) can be transmitted vertically from mother to fetus or newborn, particularly during a primary infection in pregnancy or during vaginal birth. Neonatal herpes infection can be severe or fatal, causing disseminated disease, central nervous system involvement, or mucocutaneous lesions, thus, it is a significant risk to the developing fetus/newborn.
Choice C rationale
The risk of neonatal transmission of HSV-2 is significantly higher (around 25.
Choice D rationale
Wearing tight-fitting undergarments can increase heat and moisture in the genital area, leading to friction and irritation of the lesions, which can prolong healing and increase discomfort during an outbreak. Clients are advised to wear loose-fitting cotton undergarments to keep the area dry and promote air circulation, which helps with lesion healing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A speculum exam to test for fetal fibronectin is primarily used to predict the risk of preterm labor in symptomatic women between 22 and 34 weeks of gestation. Since the client is at 37 weeks of gestation (term) and the concern is a slow trickle of fluid suggesting rupture of membranes (ROM), this test is not appropriate for the current clinical presentation or gestational age.
Choice B rationale
Nitrazine testing is a rapid, non-invasive method used to determine if the fluid leaking from the vagina is amniotic fluid. Amniotic fluid is alkaline (pH of 7.0 to 7.5) and will turn the yellow-to-orange nitrazine paper to a characteristic deep blue color, which helps confirm the diagnosis of premature rupture of membranes (PROM), a likely cause of the reported fluid trickle.
Choice C rationale
A urinalysis determines components like protein, glucose, and ketones, and is mainly used to screen for conditions such as preeclampsia (indicated by proteinuria) or urinary tract infection (UTI). While part of routine prenatal care, it is not the diagnostic test for confirming ruptured membranes, which is the primary concern given the client's report of a slow trickle of vaginal fluid.
Choice D rationale
Amniocentesis is an invasive procedure used to aspirate amniotic fluid, typically to assess fetal lung maturity (L/S ratio) or for genetic testing. Since the client is at 37 weeks and the suspicion is ruptured membranes, which warrants immediate action due to infection risk, the risks and benefits of an amniocentesis for lung maturity are not justified.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Ceftriaxone IM is the recommended treatment for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection during pregnancy. Untreated gonorrhea increases the risk of chorioamnionitis, preterm labor, premature rupture of membranes, and neonatal complications such as ophthalmia neonatorum. Ceftriaxone is safe in pregnancy and effective against gonorrhea. Prompt treatment prevents maternal complications and vertical transmission to the neonate. Therefore, administration of ceftriaxone IM is the correct nursing action in this case.
Choice B rationale: A blood culture is not indicated for a localized gonorrhea infection. Blood cultures are obtained when systemic infection or sepsis is suspected, which is not the case here. The client is asymptomatic aside from the positive culture result, with no fever, chills, or systemic signs of bacteremia. Therefore, obtaining a blood culture would not be an appropriate or necessary intervention in this scenario.
Choice C rationale: The rubella vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy because of the potential teratogenic effects on the fetus. Women who are non-immune to rubella, as indicated by a titer less than 1:8, should be vaccinated postpartum before discharge to prevent infection in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine during pregnancy is unsafe and therefore not an appropriate action at this time.
Choice D rationale: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is typically performed between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation to assess for neural tube defects and chromosomal abnormalities. At 12 weeks, it is too early to obtain this specimen, and the result would not be reliable. Therefore, ordering MSAFP at this gestational age is inappropriate. The correct timing should be discussed and scheduled for later in the pregnancy.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
