A nurse is reviewing the history of a client who has developed metabolic alkalosis. Which of the following findings is the most likely cause?
Severe hyperglycemia
Prolonged diarrhea
Chronic kidney disease
Repeated vomiting
The Correct Answer is D
A. Severe hyperglycemia, specifically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis, leads to the overproduction of ketone bodies, which are organic acids. This pathological state results in metabolic acidosis as the blood pH drops and bicarbonate is consumed to buffer the excess hydrogen ions. It is the physiological opposite of metabolic alkalosis and would present with a low pH and low bicarbonate levels.
B. Prolonged diarrhea causes the significant loss of alkaline intestinal secretions and bicarbonate through the lower gastrointestinal tract. This depletion of base results in a relative excess of acid within the systemic circulation, leading to metabolic acidosis. Diarrhea is a classic clinical cause of a decreased serum pH and is not associated with the development of an alkalotic state.
C. Chronic kidney disease generally leads to metabolic acidosis because the failing kidneys are unable to excrete hydrogen ions or regenerate sufficient bicarbonate. The accumulation of metabolic waste products and phosphates further acidifies the blood as the glomerular filtration rate declines. Alkalosis is highly unusual in renal failure unless the patient is receiving excessive exogenous bicarbonate or undergoing specific therapeutic interventions.
D. Repeated vomiting causes the excessive loss of hydrochloric acid from the stomach, which leads to a direct increase in the systemic concentration of bicarbonate. As the body loses hydrogen and chloride ions, the blood pH rises above 7.45, resulting in metabolic alkalosis. This is a common clinical finding in patients with high-output nasogastric suctioning or severe emesis, making it the most likely cause in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A.Daily antihypertensive use manages systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output but does not inherently suppress the immune system or impair the primary phases of wound healing. While uncontrolled hypertension can affect overall surgical outcomes, it is not a direct independent risk factor for the colonization of pathogens at the incision site. The nurse should monitor blood pressure stability rather than increased infectious risk.
B.A history of deep vein thrombosis increases the client's risk for venous thromboembolism during the perioperative period due to venous stasis and hypercoagulability. However, the presence of a previous clot does not compromise the skin barrier or the cellular response required to prevent a surgical site infection. Prophylaxis for this client would focus on anticoagulation and mechanical compression rather than antimicrobial stewardship.
C.Age over 65 years old is associated with physiological changes such as decreased tissue perfusion, thinning of the dermal layer, and a naturally declining immune response known as immunosenescence. These factors collectively hinder the body's ability to clear pathogens and synthesize collagen efficiently at the surgical site. The nurse must recognize that older adults have a statistically higher incidence of postoperative infections compared to younger populations.
D.A body mass index of 23 falls within the healthy reference range of 18.5 to 24.9, indicating an appropriate nutritional status and a normal distribution of adipose tissue. Unlike obesity, which impairs blood flow to subcutaneous tissue, or malnutrition, which prevents protein synthesis, a BMI of 23 supports optimal wound healing. This finding actually suggests a lower risk for complications related to surgical site integrity.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A.A fully compensated state would require the pH to return to within the normal physiological range of 7.35 to 7.45 while both the PaCO2 and HCO3 remain abnormal. Since the client's pH is 7.47, the body has not yet achieved total homeostatic balance. The presence of a pH outside the normal limits clearly excludes full compensation as a valid interpretation of these specific laboratory findings.
B.An uncompensated state occurs when the pH is abnormal and only one of the metabolic or respiratory components is abnormal, while the other remains within its reference range. In this sample, both the PaCO2 at 47 mmHg and the HCO3 at 31 mEq/L are outside their normal limits. This indicates that the secondary system has already begun to respond to the primary imbalance, thus ruling out an uncompensated interpretation.
C.These results indicate a partially compensated metabolic alkalosis because the pH is alkaline, the primary bicarbonate (HCO3) is elevated, and the respiratory system is attempting to compensate. The PaCO2 is elevated at 47 mmHg as the lungs retain carbon dioxide to lower the pH. Because the pH remains above 7.45, the compensation is active but not yet successful in returning the blood to a normal acid-base state.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
