A nurse is reviewing the medical history on a client who is preoperative for surgery.
Which of the following findings places the client at risk for a postoperative complication?
Glucose level 75 mg/dL (70-100 mg/dL).
BMI 24 (18.5-24.9).
Fractured ankle.
Obstructive sleep apnea.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
A glucose level of 75 mg/dL falls within the established normal reference range of 70 to 100 mg/dL for a fasting adult. Stable glycemic control is essential for minimizing the risk of intraoperative fluctuations and supporting effective postoperative wound healing. Because this value is normal, it does not represent an independent risk factor for complications such as delayed healing or infection that would be associated with hyperglycemia or significant hypoglycemia in the preoperative phase.
Choice B rationale
A Body Mass Index (BMI) of 24 is situated within the healthy or normal weight range, which is typically defined as 18.5 to 24.9. Clients within this range generally face fewer risks related to anesthesia administration, surgical access, and postoperative mobility compared to those who are underweight or obese. Since this measurement indicates a healthy physiological state, it is not considered a finding that increases the client's risk for postoperative complications or poor outcomes.
Choice C rationale
A fractured ankle is the likely indication for the surgery itself rather than a systemic risk factor for postoperative complications. While it affects mobility, it does not inherently impair the body's global ability to recover from anesthesia or surgery in the same way a chronic systemic condition does. The surgical team will manage the local trauma, and as long as there are no underlying comorbidities, the fracture does not pose a generalized risk to the client.
Choice D rationale
Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is a significant risk factor because it increases the likelihood of perioperative airway obstruction and severe hypoxemia. Anesthesia and postoperative opioids further relax the upper airway muscles and depress the respiratory drive, which can exacerbate OSA. This condition requires careful monitoring, specific positioning, and potentially the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) during recovery to prevent life-threatening respiratory failure or cardiac strain following the surgical procedure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Encouraging increased oral fluid intake is an inappropriate intervention for a confused client with a blood glucose of 42 mg/dL. While fluids are important, the priority is to raise the blood glucose level immediately. Furthermore, confusion increases the risk of aspiration, making the oral route dangerous if the client cannot protect their airway. Simple water intake does nothing to address the underlying neuroglycopenia. Treatment must focus on rapidly delivering glucose through concentrated sources to restore brain function.
Choice B rationale
Emergency dialysis is used for life-threatening electrolyte imbalances, such as severe hyperkalemia, or for clearing specific toxins and managing end-stage renal disease. It has no role in the management of acute hypoglycemia. The client’s confusion and diaphoresis are caused by a lack of circulating glucose, not the buildup of uremic waste products. Preparing for dialysis would delay the life-saving administration of glucose and would be an irrelevant and potentially harmful diversion of medical resources.
Choice C rationale
Administering 50 percent dextrose (D50) intravenously is a priority intervention for a client who is symptomatic and has a blood glucose level as low as 42 mg/dL. Because the client is confused, oral glucose is unsafe due to the risk of aspiration. D50 provides a concentrated bolus of glucose that rapidly increases serum levels, providing the brain with the necessary fuel to regain consciousness and stop the neuroglycopenic symptoms. This is a standard emergency protocol for severe hypoglycemia.
Choice D rationale
Rechecking the blood glucose 15 minutes after an intervention is a critical step in the "15-15 rule" of hypoglycemia management. After administering a glucose source, the nurse must evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment to ensure the level is rising appropriately toward the normal range of 70 to 110 mg/dL. This allows for the timely administration of a second dose if the glucose remains low. Continuous monitoring is essential until the client is stable and their mental status clears.
Choice E rationale
Administering an IV insulin infusion is strictly contraindicated for a client with a blood glucose of 42 mg/dL. Insulin works by moving glucose from the bloodstream into the cells, which would further lower the serum glucose and could lead to seizures, permanent brain damage, or death. Insulin is used to treat hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. The goal in this scenario is to raise the glucose level, so any administration of insulin would be a fatal medical error in this context.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the high end of the normal range, which is typically 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. While this is a normal finding, it does not specifically indicate that the interventions for pulmonary edema and fluid overload are effective. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that usually causes potassium loss. A stable potassium level is good, but it is not the primary clinical indicator that the fluid in the lungs has been successfully cleared.
Choice B rationale
A weight gain of 1 pound (0.5 kg) indicates that the patient is retaining fluid rather than losing it. In the context of pulmonary edema and IV Furosemide therapy, the goal is diuresis and weight loss. Effective treatment should result in a decrease in weight as excess interstitial and intravascular fluid is excreted by the kidneys. A gain suggests that the heart is still struggling to pump effectively or that the diuretic dose is insufficient to manage the overload.
Choice C rationale
A heart rate of 110 BPM indicates tachycardia, which is often a compensatory mechanism for decreased cardiac output or respiratory distress in pulmonary edema. A normal adult heart rate ranges from 60 to 100 BPM. An elevated heart rate suggests that the patient's cardiovascular system is still under significant stress. Effectiveness of treatment would be better demonstrated by a heart rate returning to the normal range as oxygenation improves and the fluid volume in the vasculature decreases.
Choice D rationale
Clear lung sounds are a definitive indicator that the interventions for pulmonary edema are working. Pulmonary edema involves the accumulation of fluid in the alveoli, which produces crackles or rales upon auscultation. Furosemide works to remove this excess fluid, while the Semi-Fowler's position improves lung expansion and gas exchange. When the nurse hears clear lung sounds, it signifies that the fluid has been cleared from the alveolar spaces, directly demonstrating the success of the treatment.
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