A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about caring for clients in the emergency department.
Which of the following actions should the nurse include when teaching about interacting with a client who is aggravated, pacing, and speaking loudly?
Engage the panic alarm
Use a face shield with a mask when providing care to the client.
Tell the client, “You seem to be very upset.”
Initiate seclusion protocol.
The Correct Answer is C
Tell the client, “You seem to be very upset.”.
This is an example of a therapeutic communication technique that validates the client’s feelings and encourages them to express their emotions verbally rather than physically. It also shows empathy and respect for the client’s perspective.
Choice A is wrong because engaging the panic alarm is not the first action to take when interacting with an agitated client.
The nurse should first try to calm the client down by using verbal and nonverbal communication skills, such as maintaining eye contact, speaking in a calm and clear voice, and avoiding sudden movements or gestures.
Engaging the panic alarm should be done only if the client becomes violent or poses a threat to themselves or others.
Choice B is wrong because using a face shield with a mask when providing care to the client is not relevant to the situation.
This is a personal protective equipment (PPE) that is used to prevent exposure to infectious agents or body fluids, not to manage agitation.
Using a face shield with a mask may also increase the client’s anxiety or paranoia, as they may perceive it as a sign of hostility or fear.
Choice D is wrong because initiating seclusion protocol is not appropriate for a client who is agitated, pacing, and speaking loudly.
Seclusion is a restrictive intervention that involves isolating the client in a locked room to prevent harm to themselves or others.
It should be used only as a last resort when less restrictive measures have failed or are contraindicated, and only with a provider’s order and close monitoring.
Secluding an agitated client may escalate their behavior and violate their rights.
Normal ranges for agitation are not applicable, as agitation is not a quantifiable parameter.
However, some tools that can be used to assess agitation include the Richmond AgitationSedation Scale (RASS), which ranges from -5 (unarousable) to +4 (combative), and the Agitated Behavior Scale (ABS), which ranges from 14 (no agitation) to 56 (severe agitation).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Blow into the meter as hard and quickly as possible.
This is because a peak flow meter measures how fast you can push air out of your lungs when you blow out as hard and as fast as you can.
This is called peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) or peak expiratory flow (PEF). It shows how open the airways are in the lungs and can help detect early signs of worsening asthma.
Choice A is wrong because maintaining a semi-Fowler’s position during testing is not necessary. You can sit or stand up straight, but make sure you do it the same way each time.
Choice B is wrong because placing tongue on the mouthpiece of the meter can block the air flow and affect the accuracy of the measurement. You should close your lips tightly on the mouthpiece instead.
Choice D is wrong because recording the average of the readings is not recommended.
You should record the highest of the three readings on a sheet of paper, calendar or in your asthma diary. This is your daily peak flow.
Normal ranges for peak flow vary depending on age, height, gender and race. You can use a chart or calculator to find out your predicted normal peak flow based on these factors. However, it is more important to find out your personal best peak flow by performing peak flow testing twice a day for two weeks when your asthma is under good control. Your personal best peak flow will be used to create your asthma action plan with your healthcare provider.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Completing an incident report is not the correct action. An incident report should be completed as part of the hospital's protocol to document the medication error and ensure appropriate follow-up and investigation.
Choice B reason:
Checking the client for indications of bleeding is the correct action to be taken. In this situation, the nurse's first priority should be to assess the client for indications of bleeding, as the client received a significantly higher dose of IV heparin than prescribed. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots, and an overdose can increase the risk of bleeding.
After administering the wrong dose of medication, the nurse's immediate concern is the client's safety and well-being. Checking for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, ecchymosis, hematomas, bleeding gums, melena (black, tarry stools), haematuria (blood in urine), or any other unusual bleeding, is crucial.
Choice C reason:
Monitor the client's aPTT levels: This is not the correct action to be taken. Monitoring the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) levels is essential to assess the client's coagulation status and determine if the overdose of heparin has affected their clotting ability. The healthcare provider may adjust the heparin dosage based on the aPTT levels.
Choice D reason:
Notify the risk manager: This is not the correct action to be taken. The risk manager or appropriate supervisor should be informed about the medication error as soon as possible to initiate a thorough review of the incident and take necessary steps to prevent similar errors in the future.
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