A nurse on a labor unit is admitting a client who reports painful contractions. The nurse determines that the contractions have a duration of 1 min and a frequency of 3 min. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: fetal heart rate 130/min. maternal heart rate 128/min and maternal blood pressure 92/54 mm Hg. Which of the following is the priority action for the nurse to take?
Have the client void.
Position the client with one hip elevated.
Ask the client if she needs pain medication.
Notify the provider of the findings.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is B. Position the client with one hip elevated.
A. Having the client void is a good practice, but it is not the priority action in this situation. The client's vital signs suggest a potential issue with uteroplacental perfusion, and repositioning the client should be the priority.
B. Positioning the client with one hip elevated is the priority action.
The vital signs, specifically the low blood pressure, may be indicative of aortocaval compression (supine hypotension). Elevating one hip helps alleviate this compression, improving blood flow and potentially addressing the decreased blood pressure.
C. Asking the client if she needs pain medication is important, but repositioning the client takes precedence due to the potential issue with blood pressure and uteroplacental perfusion.
D. Notifying the provider is important, but repositioning the client to improve blood flow should be done first. The provider may be notified afterward based on the client's response and ongoing assessment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Shoulder presentation is not typically described using the terms RSA. Shoulder presentation would be noted differently, and it is uncommon.
B. Breech presentation involves the presentation of the fetus with the buttocks or feet first. RSA indicates the specific position of the sacrum in relation to the mother's right side.
C. Vertex presentation refers to the head-first position, and it is not described using the terms RSA.
D. Mentum presentation is not a standard term used to describe fetal presentation. Mentum typically refers to the chin, and fetal presentations are commonly described in terms of the presenting part (e.g., vertex, breech).
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
"I will receive this medication if my baby is Rh-negative." This statement does not record understanding of the teaching. The purpose of Rho(D) immune globulin is to prevent sensitization of an Rh-negative mother to Rh-positive fetal blood. If the baby is Rh-negative, there is no need for Rho(D) immune globulin.
Choice B Reason:
"I will receive this medication when I am in labor." This statement does not record understanding of the teaching. Rho(D) immune globulin is typically given around 28 weeks of pregnancy and possibly after events that could lead to mixing of maternal and fetal blood, not specifically during labor.
Choice C Reason:
"I will need a second dose of this medication when my baby is 6 weeks old." This statement does not record understanding of the teaching. The administration of Rho(D) immune globulin is generally based on events during pregnancy and delivery, and a second dose is not typically given postpartum unless the baby is Rh-positive.
Choice D Reason:
"I will need this medication if I have an amniocentesis." This statement records understanding of the teaching. Rho(D) immune globulin is given to Rh-negative women during pregnancy and certain other situations to prevent the development of Rh incompatibility with a Rh-positive baby. If the mother undergoes procedures such as amniocentesis or experiences events that could lead to mixing of maternal and fetal blood, Rho(D) immune globulin is administered.
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