A nurse on a medical unit has just received change-of-shift report. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A 68-year-old client who had a myocardial infarction 2 days ago and reports chest pain as a 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
A 48-year-old client who has AIDS, pneumocystis pneumonia, and a temperature of 38.3°C (101° F)
A 60-year-old client who has COPD, is receiving O; 2 L/min via a nasal cannula, and has an oxygen saturation of 89%
A 26-year-old female client who has pelvic inflammatory disease and is unable to void
The Correct Answer is C
A. A 68-year-old client who had a myocardial infarction 2 days ago and reports chest pain as a 4 on a scale of 0 to 10: While chest pain is concerning, a pain level of 4 is moderate, and the client is hemodynamically stable. This client requires timely assessment but does not present the most immediate threat to life.
B. A 48-year-old client who has AIDS, pneumocystis pneumonia, and a temperature of 38.3°C (101°F): The client has an infection that requires monitoring and treatment, but the fever alone does not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition. Assessment and intervention are important but not emergent.
C. A 60-year-old client who has COPD, is receiving O₂ 2 L/min via a nasal cannula, and has an oxygen saturation of 89%: Hypoxemia is an immediate threat to life. An oxygen saturation below 90% in a client with COPD requires prompt assessment and intervention to prevent respiratory failure, making this the highest priority.
D. A 26-year-old female client who has pelvic inflammatory disease and is unable to void: Urinary retention is uncomfortable and can lead to complications, but it is not immediately life-threatening. This client can be assessed after addressing the client with hypoxemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","F"]
Explanation
A. Bedtime: The client’s bedtime of 2330 has remained unchanged despite the shift in work hours, providing some stability to the circadian rhythm. A consistent bedtime typically supports sleep regulation rather than disrupting it. Although the new routine may affect sleep pressure, the bedtime is not the primary contributor to the new difficulties falling asleep.
B. Use of chronic devices: The client turns off their phone at 2230, limiting blue-light exposure well before bedtime. There is no indication of prolonged screen use or other electronic stimulation that would interfere with melatonin release. With the device turned off an hour before bed, this factor is unlikely to be influencing the client’s disrupted sleep.
C. Evening meal: The client now eats dinner late in the evening after a 1200–2000 work shift, placing the meal close to their 2330 bedtime. Eating late can increase gastrointestinal activity and delay the body’s transition into restful sleep, contributing to both difficulty falling asleep and nighttime awakenings.
D. Medication: The client’s medications ethinyl estradiol/desogestrel and ferrous sulphate have remained consistent for months without changes in timing or dosage. These medications are not known to disrupt sleep when taken as prescribed and do not coincide with the recent onset of nighttime symptoms.
E. Caffeine use: Although the client now drinks 2 to 3 cups of coffee, it is consumed early in the morning and remains outside the usual window in which caffeine impacts nighttime sleep. Morning intake allows adequate time for caffeine metabolism before bedtime. The timing makes it a less significant factor in the client’s difficulties initiating and maintaining sleep.
F. Exercise schedule: The client exercises immediately after a shift that ends at 2000, pushing vigorous activity close to bedtime. Late-evening exercise can increase sympathetic activity and core body temperature, which can interfere with the body’s ability to relax and initiate sleep.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Turn off the heparin drip: The client’s aPTT is significantly elevated and is accompanied by active bleeding, indicated by hematuria. Stopping the heparin infusion is the most immediate action because it removes the source of ongoing anticoagulation and helps prevent further bleeding. This stabilizes the situation before additional corrective measures are taken.
B. Administer protamine sulfate: Protamine sulfate is the reversal agent for heparin and may be required, but it should be given after the heparin infusion is stopped. Administering it without stopping the drip allows continued anticoagulation, reducing the effectiveness of the reversal. The reversal medication is a secondary intervention.
C. Repeat the aPTT now and in 1 hr: Rechecking coagulation labs is appropriate to monitor progress, but it does not address the immediate risk of ongoing bleeding. Delaying action while repeating labs can allow further anticoagulation and worsening hemorrhagic symptoms. Lab monitoring becomes relevant only after the heparin drip is stopped.
D. Obtain a portable chest x-ray: A chest x-ray would not address the current problem of excessive anticoagulation and active bleeding. There is no indication of a thoracic complication requiring imaging at this moment, and performing this step would delay urgent action. The priority is to stop the heparin and control bleeding.
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