A patient presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with chest pain.
An EKG is done and the patient is found to have an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Your hospital has a catheterization lab and is capable of doing percutaneous coronary intervention on site.
This patient should have a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) to open the blocked artery within
30 minutes of ED arrival.
60 minutes of ED arrival.
90 minutes of ED arrival.
120 minutes of ED arrival.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
The 30-minute window is the recommended maximum door-to-needle time for administering fibrinolytic therapy to eligible STEMI patients at hospitals without PCI capability. Fibrinolysis is less definitive than PCI because it doesn't mechanically open the vessel and has a higher risk of bleeding complications, thus a shorter goal is needed to minimize ischemic time.
Choice B rationale
The 60-minute interval is not the current guideline for door-to-balloon time in STEMI patients receiving primary PCI. The aim is to restore blood flow rapidly to minimize myocardial damage, as irreversible injury starts within 20-40 minutes of total coronary occlusion, making a faster time goal necessary.
Choice C rationale
For patients presenting to a PCI-capable hospital with STEMI, the goal is to achieve reperfusion via Primary Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) within 90 minutes of first medical contact or hospital arrival (door-to-balloon time). This rapid intervention minimizes myocardial necrosis and improves outcomes by re-establishing coronary blood flow.
Choice D rationale
While 120 minutes is an acceptable time goal for patients transferred from a non-PCI center to a PCI center for primary PCI, it is too long for a direct presentation to a PCI-capable hospital. A longer delay increases the size of the infarct and the risk of cardiogenic shock or death. —.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Forceful coughing increases intrathoracic pressure and vagal stimulation, activating the parasympathetic system to slow AV nodal conduction. This vagal maneuver transiently interrupts reentrant circuits responsible for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT), restoring normal sinus rhythm. The maneuver is noninvasive, first-line, and physiologically effective for terminating AV nodal reentry tachycardia by enhancing acetylcholine-mediated suppression of nodal conduction velocity and refractory period shortening.
Choice B rationale
Bearing down as during a bowel movement, known as the Valsalva maneuver, similarly increases vagal tone. The increased intrathoracic pressure transiently reduces venous return, stimulating baroreceptors and causing reflex bradycardia. This vagal reflex inhibits reentrant impulses through the AV node, terminating PSVT episodes. The Valsalva maneuver is evidence-based, safe, and recommended as the initial nonpharmacologic intervention before pharmacologic or electrical therapy.
Choice C rationale
Jumping up and down once has no physiologic effect on vagal tone or AV nodal conduction. PSVT involves a reentrant circuit within or near the AV node, requiring vagal or pharmacologic interruption. Physical exertion like jumping may transiently increase sympathetic output, worsening tachycardia rather than terminating it. Therefore, this action provides no therapeutic value and is not recommended for PSVT management.
Choice D rationale
Adenosine rapidly blocks AV nodal conduction by hyperpolarizing nodal tissue through A1 receptor activation, effectively terminating AV nodal reentrant tachycardia. It is administered as a rapid intravenous bolus due to its 10-second plasma half-life. Adenosine temporarily induces asystole before sinus rhythm resumes. It is a first-line pharmacologic intervention when vagal maneuvers fail, demonstrating high efficacy in converting PSVT to normal sinus rhythm.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Synchronized cardioversion delivers a low-energy electrical shock timed to the QRS complex to interrupt a rapid, organized rhythm like atrial fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. It is contraindicated in ventricular fibrillation (VF) because VF is a chaotic, unsynchronized rhythm, and mistimed delivery can worsen the rhythm.
Choice B rationale
Ventricular fibrillation (VF) is a lethal cardiac rhythm characterized by chaotic, uncoordinated electrical activity, resulting in no mechanical pump function and immediate cardiac arrest. The definitive and most critical intervention to terminate VF and restore a perfusing rhythm is immediate, high-energy, unsynchronized electrical shock, known as rapid defibrillation.
Choice C rationale
While placing the patient on oxygen (normal range 95-100% saturation) is a general supportive measure in cardiac arrest, it is not the primary intervention for a patient in ventricular fibrillation (VF). The immediate priority is defibrillation to restart the heart, as oxygenation without circulation is ineffective.
Choice D rationale
The Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) protocol for pulseless cardiac arrest prioritizes high-quality chest compressions and early defibrillation for shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation (VF). Rescue breaths are part of the C-A-B sequence (Circulations, Airway, Breathing) but are secondary to defibrillation in VF and should not delay the shock.
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