A patient with Schizophrenia has been on antipsychotic medication to help with positive and negative symptoms. Which drug do you expect this to be?
Loxapine
Lorazepam
Zyprexa
Haldol
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Loxapine is a typical (first-generation) antipsychotic. While it is effective at reducing positive symptoms like hallucinations and delusions by blocking dopamine D2 receptors, first-generation antipsychotics are generally less effective at treating the negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as social withdrawal, blunted affect, and poverty of speech.
Choice B reason: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used primarily for the short-term management of acute anxiety, agitation, or insomnia. It does not possess antipsychotic properties and is not used as a primary treatment for either the positive or negative symptoms of schizophrenia, though it may be used as an adjunct for sedation.
Choice C reason: Zyprexa (olanzapine) is an atypical (second-generation) antipsychotic. These medications are designed to antagonize both dopamine and serotonin receptors. Because of this dual action, they are more effective than typical antipsychotics at alleviating negative symptoms while simultaneously controlling the positive symptoms associated with psychotic disorders.
Choice D reason: Haldol (haloperidol) is a potent first-generation antipsychotic. Like loxapine, it is highly effective for acute psychosis and positive symptoms due to its strong D2 receptor antagonism. However, it often provides little benefit for negative symptoms and carries a high risk of extrapyramidal side effects, making it a less likely choice for negative symptom management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Labeling a 12-year-old as "neurotic" for reacting to significant life changes is clinically inappropriate and pathologizes normal development. The child’s feelings of being overwhelmed are a common response to the rapid biological and social shifts occurring during the early stages of the adolescent period.
Choice B reason: While the child feels overwhelmed, there is insufficient clinical evidence provided to diagnose major depressive disorder. The symptoms described are focused on external and physical changes rather than persistent low mood, anhedonia, or other core diagnostic criteria required for a formal diagnosis of clinical depression.
Choice C reason: A maturational crisis occurs during normal growth and development stages, such as puberty. The patient's description of body changes and shifting social dynamics with peers of the opposite sex are classic hallmarks of the transition into adolescence, necessitating new coping strategies to manage the transition.
Choice D reason: While an identity crisis (Erikson's Identity vs. Role Confusion) is a part of adolescence, the specific mentions of body changes and peer treatment are more indicative of the immediate maturational stressors of puberty. The maturational crisis is the broader category that encompasses these developmental shifts.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Avoiding the issue allows the patient's hygiene to deteriorate further, which can lead to skin breakdown or infections. While minimizing stress is important, neglecting physical care in a patient with psychomotor retardation is a failure to meet basic physiological needs that the patient currently cannot meet.
Choice B reason: Simply telling a patient with severe depression and psychomotor retardation that they "must" bathe is often ineffective. These patients frequently lack the physical energy or cognitive drive to initiate complex tasks. Such demands may increase feelings of inadequacy or worthlessness without providing the necessary support.
Choice C reason: Bringing a personal hygiene issue to a community meeting is a violation of the patient's privacy and dignity. It can cause significant embarrassment and shame, potentially worsening the patient's depressive symptoms and damaging the therapeutic alliance between the nurse and the patient.
Choice D reason: Patients with severe psychomotor retardation require direct assistance because they lack the volition to perform ADLs. A firm, neutral, and supportive approach provides the necessary structure and physical help to maintain hygiene and self-respect without being punitive or overly demanding, ensuring the patient's safety.
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