A postpartum woman has been diagnosed with postpartum psychosis. Which of the following is essential to be included in the family teaching of this client?
The woman should never be left alone with her infant
Symptoms rarely last more than one week
Clinical response to medications is usually poor
The woman must have her vitals assessed every two days
The Correct Answer is A
A. The woman should never be left alone with her infant: Postpartum psychosis involves severe mood changes, delusions, and impaired reality testing that can place both the mother and infant at risk. Close supervision is required due to the potential for harm related to hallucinations or disorganized thinking. Continuous monitoring helps ensure infant safety during the acute phase of illness.
B. Symptoms rarely last more than one week: Postpartum psychosis is a psychiatric emergency that often persists for weeks to months without appropriate treatment. Symptom duration varies depending on severity and response to therapy. Minimizing the expected course may delay recognition of ongoing risk.
C. Clinical response to medications is usually poor: Postpartum psychosis generally responds well to antipsychotics, mood stabilizers, and sometimes electroconvulsive therapy. Early treatment significantly improves outcomes and reduces relapse risk.
D. The woman must have her vitals assessed every two days: While physical monitoring may be part of care, vital sign assessment alone does not address the psychiatric and safety concerns of postpartum psychosis. Ongoing mental status evaluation and supervision are far more critical. Vital sign frequency is not a primary teaching point for families.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Massage the fundus: Fundal massage is indicated when the uterus is boggy to promote uterine contraction and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. In this case, the fundus is already firm, indicating adequate uterine tone. Massaging a firm uterus is unnecessary and does not address the cause of displacement.
B. Insert a urinary catheter: Bladder distention can displace the uterus to the right and above the expected level. Although catheterization may be needed if the client cannot void, the initial intervention should be less invasive. Encouraging spontaneous voiding is preferred before proceeding to catheter insertion.
C. Have the client urinate: A firm uterus that is displaced from midline and elevated suggests bladder distention. Having the client urinate helps relieve bladder fullness, allowing the uterus to return to the midline and descend appropriately. This intervention directly addresses the likely cause of the abnormal fundal position.
D. Administer an analgesic: Analgesics may help manage postpartum discomfort but do not correct uterine displacement or bladder distention. Pain control does not influence uterine position or fundal height in this situation. Addressing bladder emptying is the priority intervention.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Injection of factor X: Factor X is not deficient in hemophilia A. Administering it would not correct the coagulation defect or prevent bleeding in this child.
B. Intravenous infusion of iron: Iron is used to treat anemia, not acute bleeding episodes caused by coagulation factor deficiency. It would not address the immediate risk of joint or soft tissue hemorrhage.
C. Intravenous infusion of factor VIII: Hemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of clotting factor VIII. IV administration of factor VIII replaces the deficient protein, promotes clot formation, and prevents excessive bleeding after trauma such as a knee injury.
D. Intramuscular injection of iron using the Z-track method: IM injections are generally avoided in hemophilia patients due to the high risk of muscle hematoma. Iron would not stop active bleeding from a trauma-induced injury.
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