A pregnant woman is past her due date and has been admitted to the woman's services department to induce labor. From the drug categories below, which drug does the nurse expect to be ordered for this patient?

Terbutaline, a beta2-adrenergic agonist

Bisacodyl the gastrointestinal stimulant

Oxytocin, a uterine stimulant

Levonorgestrel, an emergency contraceptive

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Terbutaline, a beta2-adrenergic agonist: Terbutaline is used to relax the uterus and inhibit preterm labor. It is a tocolytic, not an induction agent, so it is not indicated for a woman who is past her due date and requires labor stimulation. Using terbutaline in this situation would delay labor.

B. Bisacodyl, a gastrointestinal stimulant: Bisacodyl is a laxative used to stimulate bowel movements. It has no effect on uterine contractions and is not used for labor induction. Its administration would not assist in initiating labor.

C. Oxytocin, a uterine stimulant: Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions and is commonly administered to induce or augment labor in women who are past their due date. It increases contraction strength and frequency, helping to progress labor safely under monitoring.

D. Levonorgestrel, an emergency contraceptive: Levonorgestrel is used to prevent pregnancy after unprotected intercourse. It has no role in labor induction and does not affect uterine contractions. Administering it in labor would be ineffective and inappropriate.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Morphine:Morphine is an opioid analgesic used for severe pain, including unrelieved angina, but it is not indicated for managing nitroglycerin-induced headaches. Using morphine for a headache would be inappropriate and excessive.

B. Codeine:Codeine is a mild opioid used for pain or cough suppression. It is not recommended for nitroglycerin-induced headaches, as the headache is typically mild and self-limiting. Non-opioid analgesics are preferred.

C. Metoprolol:Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used to reduce myocardial oxygen demand in angina. It does not relieve nitroglycerin-induced headache and is not indicated for this side effect.

D. Acetaminophen:Nitroglycerin often causes vasodilation–related headaches. Acetaminophen is a safe and effective first-line analgesic for mild to moderate headaches. It relieves the headache without interfering with nitroglycerin’s anti-anginal effect.

A. Hypertension, hypokalemia, hyperglycemia B. Headache, muscle weakness, joint pain C. Vision disturbances, nausea, vomiting, and confusion. D. Shortness of breath, chest pain, dizziness

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Hypertension, hypokalemia, hyperglycemia:While thiazide diuretics can cause hypokalemia, hypertension and hyperglycemia are not primary indicators of digoxin toxicity. These symptoms reflect metabolic or cardiovascular issues unrelated to digoxin toxicity.

B. Headache, muscle weakness, joint pain:These are nonspecific symptoms and are not classic signs of digoxin toxicity. They may indicate other conditions but do not reliably signal digoxin overdose.

C. Vision disturbances, nausea, vomiting, and confusion:Digoxin toxicity commonly presents with gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea, vomiting), neurological changes (confusion), and visual disturbances (blurred or yellow vision, halos). Monitoring for these signs is crucial, especially when hypokalemia from thiazide diuretics increases the risk of toxicity.

D. Shortness of breath, chest pain, dizziness:These symptoms may indicate cardiac issues such as angina or arrhythmias but are not the hallmark signs of digoxin toxicity. While arrhythmias can occur, the classic early signs are GI, visual, and neurological.

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A pregnant woman is past her due date and has been admitted to the woman's services department to induce labor. From the drug categories below, which drug does the nurse expect to be ordered for this patient?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient with chest pain is prescribed nitroglycerin. After taking the medication the patient reports no more chest pain, but is experiencing a headache. Which medication from the choices below would the nurse anticipate the doctor to order for this new symptom?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A patient is prescribed thiazide diuretics and digoxin concurrently. The nurse should educate the patient on the signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity. Which of the following signs and symptoms would the nurse expect the patient to experience if digoxin toxicity occurs?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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