A public health nurse is educating caregivers about expected age-related changes seen in toddlers.
Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Toddlers will engage in imaginary play with other children their age.
Toddlers do not require short nap periods during the day.
Toddlers are able to use safety scissors to cut out simple shapes.
Toddlers are able to feed themselves using a spoon.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Imaginary play, or parallel play, is a developmental milestone that typically emerges in toddlers. However, they usually engage in solitary play alongside other children, but without direct interaction. Collaborative imaginary play with other children is a more advanced social skill that typically develops during the preschool years, not during the toddler stage.
Choice B rationale
Toddlers require a significant amount of sleep to support their rapid physical and cognitive development. They typically need 11 to 14 hours of sleep per 24-hour period. This usually includes a long overnight sleep and one or two short nap periods during the day, which are essential for rest and consolidation of learning.
Choice C rationale
The ability to use safety scissors to cut out simple shapes is a fine motor skill that requires more advanced dexterity and hand-eye coordination than a typical toddler possesses. This developmental milestone is usually achieved by preschoolers, around 4 to 5 years of age. Toddlers have not yet developed the necessary coordination for this task.
Choice D rationale
The ability to feed oneself with a spoon is a common developmental milestone for toddlers, typically emerging around 15 to 18 months of age. This skill reflects improvements in their fine motor control and hand-eye coordination. Toddlers are still learning and may be messy, but they are generally capable of this self-feeding behavior.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Discussing problems and support systems is an important long-term goal but is not the immediate priority during an acute manic episode with aggressive behavior. An agitated client in a manic state is unlikely to be receptive to a rational discussion. The immediate concern is to de-escalate the situation and prevent harm.
Choice B rationale
The safety of the client and others is always the priority in a volatile situation. A client in the manic phase who is shouting and uncooperative poses a risk for harm to themselves and those around them. The nurse must first ensure a safe environment before attempting any other interventions.
Choice C rationale
While helping the client implement coping skills is a good intervention, it is not the priority during an acute crisis. The client’s agitation makes them unable to utilize coping skills effectively. The nurse must first ensure safety and de-escalate the situation before attempting to teach or reinforce new behaviors.
Choice D rationale
Moving the client to a quiet area is a component of de-escalation and creating a safer environment, but the ultimate priority action is the broader concept of ensuring safety, which includes this action along with other measures like removing potential weapons and calling for help if needed.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Creating a free exercise program for adults who have cardiovascular disease is an example of tertiary prevention. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent disease complications and improve the quality of life for individuals who already have a health condition. This intervention focuses on managing the existing disease rather than preventing its initial occurrence in a healthy population.
Choice B rationale
Implementing immunization clinics is a classic example of primary prevention. Primary prevention activities are designed to prevent the onset of a disease or injury by targeting healthy individuals. Immunizations work by stimulating a person's immune system to create antibodies, thereby preventing the development of infectious diseases before they occur in the community.
Choice C rationale
Providing tuberculosis screenings is a form of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention focuses on the early detection and treatment of a disease to prevent it from progressing. Screening for tuberculosis allows for the identification of asymptomatic individuals who may have been exposed, enabling prompt treatment to prevent the development of active disease and further transmission.
Choice D rationale
Administering immunoglobulin after exposure to a disease is considered secondary prevention. This intervention aims to prevent the development of an illness in an individual who has already been exposed to a pathogen, thereby halting or minimizing the progression of the disease. It is not preventing the initial exposure, but rather the subsequent clinical illness.
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