A woman 38 weeks gestation experiencing severe preeclampsia has been receiving magnesium sulfate by intravenous infusion for 8 hours. The nurse assesses the client and documents the following findings: temperature of 37.1°C, pulse rate of 96 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, BP of 170/112 mm Hg. 3+ DTRs, and no ankle clonus. The nurse calls the provider with an update. The nurse should anticipate an order for which medication first?
Betamethasone
Hydralazine
Dexamethasone
Lovenox
The Correct Answer is B
A. Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to enhance fetal lung maturity, typically when preterm birth is anticipated (<34–37 weeks). At 38 weeks gestation, the fetus is term, so corticosteroids are not indicated.
B. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication used to treat severe hypertension in pregnancy (systolic ≥160 mm Hg or diastolic ≥110 mm Hg). This client’s BP is 170/112 mm Hg, which meets criteria for immediate pharmacologic intervention to prevent maternal complications such as stroke, eclampsia, or organ damage. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate an order for hydralazine (or another antihypertensive like labetalol or nifedipine) to lower blood pressure safely.
C. Dexamethasone is also a corticosteroid used to promote fetal lung development and is not indicated at term gestation (38 weeks) for this client.
D. Lovenox (enoxaparin) is an anticoagulant used for thromboembolism prevention. While some pregnant clients may require anticoagulation, this client’s primary acute concern is severe hypertension, not clotting risk, making Lovenox inappropriate as the first intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Fetal hypoxia is typically indicated by abnormal FHR patterns, such as late decelerations, decreased or absent variability, bradycardia, or prolonged decelerations. In this scenario, the FHR shows a normal baseline, moderate variability, and accelerations, all of which suggest adequate oxygenation and fetal well-being.
B. Tachycardia is defined as a baseline FHR greater than 160 beats per minute. Causes of fetal tachycardia can include maternal fever, infection, medications, or fetal hypoxia, but this fetus has a baseline of 135 bpm, which is within the normal range of 110–160 bpm, so tachycardia is not present.
C. Bradycardia is defined as a baseline FHR less than 110 beats per minute. Causes of bradycardia can include prolonged cord compression, maternal hypotension, or congenital heart conditions, but this fetus has a baseline of 135 bpm, ruling out bradycardia.
D. This fetus exhibits a reassuring FHR pattern characterized by a normal baseline indicating adequate cardiac function, moderate variability reflecting an intact autonomic nervous system and good oxygenation, presence of accelerations demonstrating a responsive, well-oxygenated fetus, and absence of decelerations, indicating there is no evidence of uteroplacental compromise or cord compression.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Vaginal examination findings are documented in the order of cervical dilation / cervical effacement / fetal station. In this case, 6/90%/−1 means the cervix is 6 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and the fetal presenting part is at −1 station. Fetal station describes the relationship of the presenting part to the ischial spines, which are designated as station 0. Negative numbers indicate the presenting part is above the ischial spines, and positive numbers indicate it is below. Therefore, a station of −1 means the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines, making this interpretation correct.
B. The first number in the documentation represents cervical dilation. A dilation of 6 cm indicates active labor. A dilation of 1 cm would be documented as 1/—/—, not 6, so this interpretation is incorrect.
C. A presenting part that is 1 cm below the ischial spines would be documented as +1 station. Because the finding is −1 station, this option incorrectly interprets the fetal position.
D. The second number represents cervical effacement. An effacement of 90% means the cervix is almost completely thinned and ready for delivery. An effacement of 70% does not match the documented finding and is therefore inaccurate.
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