Amiodarone 300 mg IV push would be administered for which rhythm in the ACLS algorithms?
Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia (VT).
Symptomatic bradycardia.
Asystole.
Stable Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT).
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic that slows conduction and prolongs the refractory period in myocardial tissue. In the ACLS algorithm for cardiac arrest, a 300 mg bolus is indicated for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation that is unresponsive to initial defibrillation and vasopressors. It works by blocking potassium channels, which helps to stabilize the electrical environment of the heart and facilitates the return of a perfusing rhythm during resuscitation.
Choice B rationale
Symptomatic bradycardia is primarily treated with atropine, which blocks vagal effects on the sinoatrial node to increase the heart rate. If atropine is ineffective, pacing or infusions of dopamine or epinephrine are considered. Amiodarone is contraindicated in this scenario because its primary mechanism involves slowing the heart rate and conduction. Administering an antiarrhythmic like amiodarone to a patient who is already bradycardic would likely worsen the condition and lead to asystole.
Choice C rationale
Asystole is a state of no electrical or mechanical activity in the heart. The treatment priorities for asystole are high-quality CPR and the administration of epinephrine to increase coronary perfusion pressure. Amiodarone has no role in the treatment of asystole because there is no organized or disorganized electrical rhythm for the drug to suppress or modify. Using an antiarrhythmic on a heart with no electrical activity provides no physiological benefit to the patient.
Choice D rationale
For stable supraventricular tachycardia, the initial interventions include vagal maneuvers followed by adenosine to briefly block the atrioventricular node. While amiodarone can be used for certain stable atrial arrhythmias, the specific dose of 300 mg IV push is reserved for pulseless arrest scenarios. In a stable patient with a pulse, amiodarone is typically administered as an infusion over several minutes to avoid profound hypotension and other severe cardiovascular side effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering sedative or paralytic agents is typically performed prior to or during the actual intubation process to facilitate tube passage and prevent airway trauma. Once the tube is inserted and the cuff is inflated, the priority shifts to verification of placement rather than further sedation. Giving these drugs after insertion does not provide any diagnostic data regarding whether the tube is in the trachea or the esophagus.
Choice B rationale
A chest x-ray is the definitive gold standard for confirming the depth of endotracheal tube placement. It ensures the distal tip of the tube is positioned approximately 2 to 5 cm above the carina. While other methods confirm the tube is in the trachea, the x-ray is essential to ensure it has not migrated into the right mainstem bronchus, which would cause unilateral lung expansion and potential collapse.
Choice C rationale
End-tidal carbon dioxide detection provides immediate physiological feedback that the tube is located within the respiratory tract. Since CO2 is a byproduct of alveolar gas exchange, its presence in exhaled air indicates the tube is in the trachea rather than the esophagus. A colorimetric changer or capnography waveform is a primary tool used immediately after intubation to rule out esophageal placement before further interventions are performed.
Choice D rationale
Auscultation is a critical immediate step to verify bilateral lung expansion and rule out unintentional esophageal or endobronchial intubation. The nurse should listen for equal breath sounds over the midaxillary lines and ensure there are no gurgling sounds over the epigastrium. Epigastric sounds suggest the tube is in the stomach. Breath sounds must be assessed early to ensure both lungs are being ventilated prior to securing the device.
Choice E rationale
Arterial blood gases are useful for evaluating the long-term effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation after the patient is stabilized on a ventilator. However, they are not used for the initial confirmation of tube placement because the results take too long to obtain. Verification must be instantaneous using physical assessment and CO2 detection to prevent hypoxia. Normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45, and normal PaO2 is 80 to 100 mmHg.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While PEEP can eventually lead to improved lung compliance, its primary and immediate mechanical purpose is not the reduction of the work of breathing. In fact, excessively high levels of PEEP can sometimes increase the work of breathing by causing overdistention of the alveoli, making it harder for the patient to initiate a breath or move air effectively. Its therapeutic focus remains on gas exchange rather than the muscular effort of ventilation.
Choice B rationale
This choice is scientifically incorrect because PEEP is specifically designed to increase the functional residual capacity, which is the volume of air remaining in the lungs at the end of a normal expiration. By maintaining positive pressure, PEEP prevents the total collapse of the lungs during the expiratory phase. Decreasing this capacity would lead to widespread atelectasis and a significant decline in the surface area available for gas exchange at the alveolar-capillary membrane.
Choice C rationale
Tidal volume is the amount of air moved in or out of the lungs during a single respiratory cycle and is typically determined by the ventilator settings or the patient's effort. While PEEP improves the environment for air delivery, it is not used as a primary mechanism to increase the specific volume of a single breath. Instead, it maintains a baseline pressure that keeps the respiratory architecture open for the duration of the cycle.
Choice D rationale
The fundamental purpose of PEEP is to improve oxygenation by keeping alveoli open at the end of expiration, a process known as recruitment. This prevents atelectasis and increases the surface area for gas exchange. By maintaining open alveoli, it reduces intrapulmonary shunting, where blood flows past unventilated lung tissue. This mechanism allows for a lower fraction of inspired oxygen to be used while maintaining adequate arterial oxygen tension and systemic delivery.
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