An interdisciplinary team is considering whether to apply the principle of paternalism in the care of a client.
What query should guide the team's decision?
Does the client have strong social or family support?
What is the client's most likely prognosis?
Is the client competent to make decisions?
What interventions are in the client's best interest?
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Social or family support systems are critical components of a holistic care plan but do not serve as the primary legal or ethical justification for paternalistic intervention. Paternalism involves overriding a client's preferences for their perceived benefit. While family can provide insight into a client's values, the ethical dilemma of paternalism specifically addresses the conflict between provider beneficence and individual autonomy. Therefore, the presence of support does not scientifically or ethically validate bypassing a client's personal decision-making rights.
Choice B rationale
Prognosis describes the likely course and outcome of a disease based on clinical data and statistical probabilities. While a poor prognosis may increase a healthcare team's desire to intervene, it does not provide the ethical basis for paternalism. Scientific medicine uses prognosis to inform the client so they can make an autonomous choice. Overriding that choice based solely on the expected outcome violates the principle of self-determination unless the client lacks the cognitive capacity to understand said prognosis.
Choice C rationale
Competence is the scientific and legal determination of a client's ability to understand information, appreciate consequences, and manipulate data to make a reasoned decision. In ethics, paternalism is only justifiable when a client's autonomy is impaired. If a client is competent, their right to self-determination is absolute under the principle of autonomy. Assessment of cognitive function, including memory, executive function, and orientation, must be performed to determine if the team has the right to intervene.
Choice D rationale
Determining which interventions are in a client's best interest is an application of the principle of beneficence. While the goal of paternalism is to promote the best interest of the individual, the team cannot unilaterally decide this if the client is capable of defining their own interests. Scientifically, the best interest is subjective and varies between individuals. The team must first establish that the client cannot identify their own interests before they can ethically apply a paternalistic framework.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Measuring intake and output is a basic data collection task that does not require nursing judgment or clinical analysis. Under the principles of delegation, a UAP can perform this task for stable patients. The RN remains responsible for analyzing the numerical data to evaluate the effectiveness of rehydration therapy. Dehydration involves fluid volume deficit where normal urine output is typically 30 mL to 60 mL per hour.
Choice B rationale
Assisting with ambulation is a standard task for UAPs and LPNs when the patient is clinically stable. Postoperative knee replacement patients require movement to prevent venous thromboembolism. If the patient is early in their recovery or unstable, the RN must perform the initial assessment. However, routine assistance with walking is appropriate for delegation as it focuses on physical support rather than complex clinical assessment of the surgical site.
Choice C rationale
Reinforcing teaching is a specific competency within the LPN scope of practice. While the RN must perform the initial education and assessment of the patient's learning needs regarding heart failure and sodium restrictions, the LPN can remind the patient of these instructions. This reinforcement helps solidify the patient's understanding of dietary triggers for fluid retention and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms, supporting the overall plan of care.
Choice D rationale
Monitoring a stable patient is within the scope of both LPNs and UAPs, depending on the specific observation required. For a patient with a history of seizures who is currently stable after a procedure, the LPN can monitor for signs of seizure activity or changes in consciousness. The RN must still perform the primary neurological assessments, but the delegation of routine observation ensures patient safety while the RN manages more complex tasks.
Choice E rationale
Administering oral medications to stable patients is a core function of the LPN. The LPN is trained to verify the five rights of medication administration and monitor for basic side effects. In a postoperative context, once the patient is stable and cleared for oral intake, the LPN can safely provide scheduled medications. The RN retains the responsibility for managing intravenous medications, blood products, and any complex titration required by the patient.
Choice F rationale
Changing a central venous catheter dressing is a sterile, complex procedure that is generally reserved for the RN in many facility policies due to the high risk of central line associated bloodstream infections. This task involves assessing the insertion site for signs of infection and maintaining strict aseptic technique. Because of the potential for significant complications and the need for advanced clinical judgment, it is not typically delegated to UAPs or LPNs.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Collecting a sterile sputum specimen from a ventilated patient is a necessary task but does not represent an immediate life-threatening emergency. While maintaining airway patency and monitoring ventilator settings are high priorities, this patient is currently supported by mechanical ventilation. The specimen collection can be momentarily deferred while the nurse addresses patients experiencing acute, worsening respiratory distress that is not yet stabilized by mechanical means or effective medication.
Choice B rationale
Starting intravenous antibiotics for a pneumonia patient is a high priority to treat the underlying infection and prevent sepsis. However, this is a scheduled intervention rather than an acute change in status. Antibiotics should be given within the prescribed timeframe to maintain therapeutic blood levels. Compared to a patient experiencing a sudden asthma exacerbation that is not responding to rescue inhalers, the pneumonia patient is relatively more stable for the initial few minutes.
Choice C rationale
A pulse oximetry reading of 90 percent is often considered an acceptable baseline for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. These patients frequently live in a state of chronic hypoxemia, and their drive to breathe is often triggered by low oxygen levels rather than high carbon dioxide. Since this reading was from the previous shift and is expected for the disease process, this patient does not require the most immediate assessment.
Choice D rationale
This patient is the highest priority because they are demonstrating signs of an acute asthma exacerbation that is refractory to bronchodilator therapy. Shortness of breath after using a rescue inhaler suggests a potential status asthmaticus or severe airway narrowing that could lead to respiratory arrest. This represents a failure of the standard emergency treatment and requires immediate nursing assessment of lung sounds, work of breathing, and potential escalation of care to maintain the airway.
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