An older adult who is diagnosed with severe rheumatoid arthritis reports having difficulty with meal preparation. This should be documented as a deficit in:
instrumental activities of daily living.
activities of daily living.
functional activities of daily living.
independent activities of daily living.
The Correct Answer is A
Functional assessment in older adults evaluates their ability to perform tasks necessary for independent living and self-care. These abilities are categorized into basic activities of daily living (ADLs) and instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs). IADLs involve more complex skills required for managing a household and maintaining independence in the community. Conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis can significantly impair fine motor skills and joint function, affecting tasks like cooking and meal preparation.
Rationale:
A. Instrumental activities of daily living include complex tasks such as meal preparation, housekeeping, medication management, transportation, and financial management. Difficulty with meal preparation indicates impairment in these higher-level functional tasks. Severe rheumatoid arthritis can cause joint pain, stiffness, and deformities that interfere with hand function, making IADLs the appropriate classification.
B. Activities of daily living refer to basic self-care tasks such as bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring, and eating. While rheumatoid arthritis may eventually affect these abilities in severe cases, meal preparation is not classified under basic ADLs. Therefore, this option does not accurately reflect the described deficit.
C. Functional activities of daily living is not a standard classification term in clinical functional assessment frameworks. The recognized categories are basic ADLs and instrumental ADLs. Because this option is not a validated classification, it is not appropriate for documentation.
D. Independent activities of daily living is not a formal category used in functional assessment tools. While independence is the overall goal of care, it is not a distinct classification for documenting specific deficits. The correct established category for meal preparation difficulty is instrumental activities of daily living.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Pressure injuries are classified based on the depth and extent of tissue damage resulting from prolonged pressure, usually over bony prominences. Accurate staging is essential for guiding wound management, documenting severity, and predicting healing outcomes. Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness skin loss extending through the epidermis and into the dermis, often presenting as an open shallow ulcer or blister. Correct identification ensures appropriate treatment and prevention of further tissue damage.
Rationale:
A. Stage 1 pressure injury involves intact skin with non-blanchable erythema over a localized area. There is no open wound or loss of skin layers, only changes in skin color and temperature. Since this case involves partial-thickness skin loss, it is more advanced than Stage 1.
B. Stage 2 pressure injury is correctly documented because it involves partial-thickness loss of skin affecting the epidermis and dermis. It may present as an open shallow ulcer or an intact or ruptured serum-filled blister. The wound is superficial and does not extend into deeper tissues such as subcutaneous fat or muscle.
C. Stage 3 pressure injuries involve full-thickness skin loss extending into the subcutaneous tissue, often with visible fat but not exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. The damage is deeper than Stage 2 and may include tunneling or undermining. Since this case is limited to epidermis and dermis, Stage 3 is too advanced.
D. Stage 4 pressure injuries involve full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. These are severe wounds with extensive destruction and high risk of complications such as osteomyelitis. The findings described do not indicate this level of tissue involvement, making Stage 4 incorrect.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Polypharmacy in older adults increases the risk of adverse drug events, drug-drug interactions, falls, cognitive impairment, and hospitalizations. Safe prescribing requires regular medication review, reconciliation, and evaluation of appropriateness based on current clinical needs. Advanced practice nurses play a key role in minimizing unnecessary medications and optimizing therapeutic regimens. The goal is to improve safety while avoiding overprescribing, especially of high-risk medications.
Rationale:
A. Assessing medications for drug-drug interactions is essential in older adults because multiple concurrent medications increase the risk of harmful pharmacologic interactions. These interactions can alter drug metabolism, increase toxicity, or reduce therapeutic effectiveness. Regular review helps prevent adverse drug events and ensures safe pharmacotherapy.
B. Performing a thorough medication history and reconciliation ensures that all prescribed, over-the-counter, and herbal medications are accurately documented. This process helps identify duplications, omissions, and potentially inappropriate medications. It is a critical step in preventing errors during transitions of care and ongoing treatment.
C. Assessing for non-adherence, underuse, and inappropriate use of medications helps identify barriers to effective treatment in older adults. Patients may skip doses, take incorrect amounts, or continue unnecessary medications due to misunderstanding or cognitive decline. Addressing these issues improves therapeutic outcomes and reduces medication-related harm.
D. Routinely prescribing opioids for pain is inappropriate in older adults due to increased risks of sedation, respiratory depression, falls, constipation, and dependence. Opioids should only be used when necessary, at the lowest effective dose, and for the shortest duration possible. Non-opioid and non-pharmacologic pain management strategies are preferred as first-line approaches in most cases.
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