Based on the assessment findings, the priority diagnosis suspected is the client is at risk of:
Worsening anemia.
Preeclampsia.
Dehydration.
Eclampsia.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Worsening anemia is a potential risk in the postpartum period due to blood loss during delivery. However, the client's current symptoms of headache, right upper quadrant pain, and hypertension are not typical signs of anemia. Anemia presents with fatigue, pallor, and tachycardia. The cluster of symptoms strongly suggests a hypertensive disorder, not worsening anemia.
Choice B rationale
Preeclampsia is a multisystem disorder characterized by hypertension and proteinuria. The client's symptoms of new-onset headache, right upper quadrant pain, and a blood pressure of 154/100 mm Hg are classic signs and symptoms of postpartum preeclampsia. This is a priority diagnosis because it can rapidly progress to more severe complications, posing a significant risk to the client's health.
Choice C rationale
Dehydration is a state of negative fluid balance. While fatigue can be a symptom of dehydration, the other symptoms like headache, right upper quadrant pain, and hypertension are not typically associated with it. The client's blood pressure is elevated, which is contrary to what would be expected with dehydration, where hypotension is a more common finding.
Choice D rationale
Eclampsia is the onset of seizures in a woman with preeclampsia. While this client is at risk for eclampsia, it is not the primary diagnosis. Preeclampsia is the underlying condition that puts the client at risk for seizures. Eclampsia would be a progression of the disease. The current symptoms are consistent with preeclampsia, not the active seizure state of eclampsia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While ensuring that preoperative laboratory results are available is a necessary step in the preoperative process, it is not the most immediate action. The client's consumption of coffee at 0400 violates the NPO (nil per os) guidelines, which is a significant safety concern. The immediate priority is to address the NPO violation with the appropriate healthcare provider.
Choice B rationale
Starting a prescribed IV with lactated Ringer's is part of the standard preoperative preparation. However, this action is secondary to addressing the NPO violation. The client's safety is compromised by the recent ingestion of fluids, and this issue must be communicated to the anesthesia care provider before any further interventions, including IV fluid administration, are initiated.
Choice C rationale
While the obstetrician should be informed of the NPO violation, the anesthesia care provider is the most critical person to notify first. Anesthesia for a C-section is significantly impacted by the client's NPO status. The risk of aspiration pneumonia during intubation is greatly increased with recent oral intake. The anesthesia provider will determine the appropriate course of action, which may include delaying the procedure.
Choice D rationale
The anesthesia care provider must be informed immediately because the client's NPO status is a critical factor in safe anesthesia administration. Ingestion of fluids within two hours of surgery increases the risk of pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents, which can lead to serious complications such as chemical pneumonitis and acute respiratory distress syndrome. The anesthesia provider needs this information to assess risk and determine if the procedure needs to be postponed.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Physiologic jaundice, a common condition in newborns due to immature liver function, involves the breakdown of fetal hemoglobin. However, a worsening of jaundice or its persistence beyond the first week of life could indicate a more serious condition like pathologic jaundice, necessitating immediate medical evaluation to prevent potential kernicterus and brain damage.
Choice B rationale
Frequent and effective breastfeeding, which stimulates peristalsis and promotes stooling, is crucial for eliminating bilirubin from the newborn's body. Infrequent feedings lead to decreased stool passage and reabsorption of bilirubin, increasing the risk of hyperbilirubinemia, especially in breastfed infants who are not feeding well.
Choice C rationale
Supplementing with formula can interfere with the establishment of a robust breastfeeding routine and may not effectively decrease serum bilirubin levels. The most effective strategy to manage physiologic jaundice in a breastfed infant is to increase the frequency and duration of breastfeeding to promote the excretion of bilirubin.
Choice D rationale
While prematurity is a significant risk factor for neonatal jaundice due to an even more immature liver, full-term infants are still susceptible to physiologic jaundice. This occurs as their liver, although more mature than a preterm infant's, is still developing the full capacity to conjugate and excrete bilirubin.
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