In choosing a benzodiazepine to treat anxiety the prescriber needs to be aware of the possibility of dependence. The benzodiazepine with the greatest likelihood of causing rapidly developing dependence is:
Diazepam (Valium)
Lorazepam (Ativan)
Alprazolam (Xanax)
Clonazepam (Klonopin)
The Correct Answer is C
Benzodiazepines are central nervous system depressants used for the short-term management of anxiety disorders, panic disorders, and acute agitation. They work by enhancing the effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), producing anxiolytic, sedative, and muscle-relaxant effects. Although effective, these medications carry a risk of tolerance, dependence, and withdrawal, especially with prolonged or high-dose use. The onset of action and duration of effect influence their abuse potential and likelihood of dependence.
Rationale:
A. Diazepam (Valium) has a long half-life and active metabolites, which results in a slower onset and more prolonged effect in the body. This pharmacokinetic profile generally leads to a lower risk of rapid dependence compared to shorter-acting benzodiazepines. While dependence is still possible, it tends to develop more gradually than with high-potency, short-acting agents.
B. Lorazepam (Ativan) is an intermediate-acting benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety and acute agitation. It has a relatively faster onset than long-acting agents but still does not produce the same rapid reinforcement pattern associated with the highest-risk drugs. Dependence can occur, but it is generally less rapid compared to short-acting, high-potency agents like alprazolam.
C. Alprazolam (Xanax) is a short-acting, high-potency benzodiazepine with a rapid onset of action, which increases its reinforcing effects and potential for misuse. The quick relief of anxiety symptoms contributes to a higher risk of psychological and physical dependence. It is therefore the benzodiazepine most associated with rapid development of dependence among the options listed.
D. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a long-acting benzodiazepine with a slower onset and longer duration of action. This results in more stable plasma levels and a lower likelihood of rapid reinforcement compared to short-acting agents. While dependence can still develop with prolonged use, it generally occurs more gradually than with alprazolam.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Impetigo is a highly contagious superficial bacterial skin infection commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureusand sometimes Streptococcus pyogenes. It typically presents as honey-colored crusted lesions and is most often managed with topical or systemic antibiotics depending on severity and extent. Localized, mild cases are best treated with topical agents to limit systemic exposure and effectively eradicate the infection. Early treatment also helps prevent spread to others and further skin involvement.
Rationale:
A. Miconazole (Lotrimin) is an antifungal agent used to treat fungal infections such as tinea corporis or candidiasis. Since impetigo is a bacterial infection, miconazole has no activity against Staphylococcus aureusor Streptococcus pyogenes. Using an antifungal would not resolve the infection and could allow progression or spread.
B. Mupirocin (Bactroban) is the first-line treatment for mild, localized impetigo. It works by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis, effectively targeting common causative organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus. For limited lesions, topical therapy is preferred because it is highly effective, reduces systemic side effects, and directly treats the infected skin area.
C. Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) is an oral antibiotic reserved for more extensive, severe, or systemic infections. While it has activity against common impetigo pathogens, it is not necessary for mild localized lesions. Oral therapy increases systemic exposure and is typically avoided when topical treatment is sufficient.
D. Cephalexin (Keflex) is effective against many gram-positive organisms and may be used for more widespread impetigo. However, for 2–3 localized lesions, systemic therapy is not indicated as first-line management. Topical treatment is equally effective in mild cases and minimizes unnecessary antibiotic exposure.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is a first-generation antipsychotic used in schizophrenia, primarily effective for positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. However, typical antipsychotics can worsen or fail to improve negative symptoms like flat affect, social withdrawal, and poor self-care. Negative symptoms are more closely linked to dopamine dysfunction in the mesocortical pathway and respond better to medications with broader dopamine-serotonin activity. Treatment adjustment is often needed when negative symptoms predominate or worsen.
Rationale:
A. Switching to lithium such as Lithium (Lithobid) is not appropriate because lithium is used for bipolar disorder and mood stabilization, not for primary treatment of schizophrenia negative symptoms. It does not address psychotic symptoms or negative symptom clusters such as avolition or flat affect.
B. Switching to another typical antipsychotic like Haloperidol (Haldol) would likely not improve negative symptoms and may further exacerbate them due to strong dopamine D2 blockade. Typical antipsychotics are more effective for positive symptoms and are associated with extrapyramidal side effects, which can worsen functional impairment and social withdrawal.
C. Switching to an atypical antipsychotic such as Risperidone (Risperdal) is appropriate because atypical agents target both dopamine and serotonin receptors, providing better coverage for both positive and negative symptoms. These medications are more effective in improving affect, motivation, and social functioning compared to typical antipsychotics. They also have a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects at standard doses.
D. Increasing the dose of Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is not appropriate because it may worsen side effects without improving negative symptoms. Higher doses increase the risk of sedation, anticholinergic effects, and extrapyramidal symptoms, all of which can further impair functioning and quality of life. Negative symptoms are not dose-responsive to typical antipsychotic escalation.
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