In the first 24 hours post myocardial infarction, the nurse should be most concerned with assessing the client for

congestive heart failure.

papillary muscle rupture.

dysrhythmias.

pericarditis.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Congestive heart failure can develop after MI but is more likely to occur later, depending on the extent of myocardial damage.
B. Papillary muscle rupture is a rare mechanical complication that usually occurs 2–7 days post-MI.
C. Dysrhythmias are the most common and immediate life-threatening complication in the first 24 hours post-MI, requiring continuous monitoring.
D. Pericarditis may develop after MI but typically occurs several days later, not within the first 24 hours.

Nursing Test Bank

Test Bank #1: RN Pharmacology Exams Test Bank #2: RN Medical-Surgical Exams Test Bank #3: RN Fundamentals Exams Test Bank #4: RN Maternal-Newborn Exams Test Bank #5: RN Anatomy and Physiology Exams Test Bank #6: RN Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Test Bank #7: RN Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Test Bank #9: RN Adult Health Test Bank #10: RN Dosage Calculation Test Bank #11: RN Community Health Exams Test Bank #12: RN Psychology Exams Test Bank #13: RN Nursing Care Of Children Test Bank #14: RN Foundations of Nursing Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exam #1: RN Comprehensive predictor 2023 proctored exam Exam #2: Ati rn vati comprehensive predictor proctored exam Exam #3: Ati Rn Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam 2023 Exam #4: Rn Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Proctored Exam - St. Joseph Exam #5: RN Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam (National U CA San Diego) Exam #6: Ati rn comprehensive predictor 2023 retake proctored exam Exam #7: RN Hesi Exit Proctored Exam Exam #8: Hesi RN Exit proctored exam Exam #9: Hesi rn exit proctored exam Exam #10: Hesi Rn compass exit B proctored exam

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Continuous blood pressure monitoring is important for safety but does not prevent ventricular fibrillation during cardioversion.
B. Administering sedation improves client comfort but does not address the risk of inducing arrhythmias.
C. Confirming that the synchronizer switch is in the "on" position ensures the shock is delivered during the R wave of the QRS complex, which prevents delivery during the vulnerable T wave and reduces the risk of ventricular fibrillation.
D. Setting the defibrillator to a higher energy level is not a preventive measure for arrhythmias and may increase the risk of myocardial injury.

A. No more than two alcoholic drinks daily are recommended. B. Notify the doctor about any symptoms of heart failure such as shortness of breath. C. Elevating the legs above the heart will help relieve angina. D. Careful compliance with diet and medications will prevent heart failure.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Alcohol can worsen cardiomyopathy; in most cases, complete avoidance is recommended rather than limiting to two drinks.
B. Early recognition of worsening heart failure symptoms, such as dyspnea, edema, or fatigue, is critical so prompt medical intervention can prevent complications.
C. Elevating the legs may relieve peripheral edema but does not address angina or heart failure management in dilated cardiomyopathy.
D. Compliance with diet and medications helps manage symptoms but cannot completely prevent heart failure progression; ongoing monitoring is essential.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

In the first 24 hours post myocardial infarction, the nurse should be most concerned with assessing the client for

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client admitted with acute dyspnea is diagnosed with dilated cardiomyopathy. Which information will the nurse include when teaching the client about management of this disorder?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of "decreased cardiac output, related to valvular insufficiency for a client with infective endocarditis (IE) based on the assessment finding of

The mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) is decreasing in a client who has a severe pneumonia. To determine the possible cause of the decreased SVO2, the nurse assesses the client for

A client has a temporary transvenous pacemaker for a third-degree AV-block. The pacemaker begins to lose capture, and the client develops symptoms consistent with an inadequate cardiac output. The priority nursing intervention to correct this pacemaker complication is to

The physician's order states: "If BP drops below 90/60 administer dopamine via continuous infusion and titrate the drip to maintain a blood pressure of 100/70." The client's blood pressure was 84/50, and the nurse initiated the dopamine drip. One hour later the BP is 180/90. The nurse should

In the change of shift report, you are told that your client is in a second-degree type 1 AV heart block. You anticipate that the cardiac rhythm strip will reveal which of the following?

Which information obtained by the nurse when assessing a client admitted with mitral valve regurgitation should be communicated to the health care provider immediately?

The nurse is assessing a client with acute coronary syndrome (ACS). The nurse includes a careful history in the assessment, especially regarding the signs and symptoms. What signs and symptoms are suggestive of an ACS?

Your client with a cardiac condition will be going home on simvastatin and gemfibrozil. Which of the following assessment findings is most important to communicate to the healthcare provider?