Indicate the best location where the nurse would auscultate a murmur in a client who presents with orthopnea, peripheral cyanosis, and a narrow pulse pressure. Select your answer by clicking the desired location on the image below. To move a pin, click another location on the image. To remove a pin, click it once
The Correct Answer is "{\"xRanges\":[44.21084205933683,44.55988219895288],\"yRanges\":[80.08298755186722,80.91286307053942]}"
Aortic area: Aortic Stenosis.
Key findings:
- Orthopnea
- Peripheral cyanosis
- Narrow pulse pressure
These are classic findings of Aortic Stenosis.
- Obstruction of left ventricular outflow
- Decreased stroke volume
- Narrow pulse pressure (low systolic output)
- Pulmonary congestion - orthopnea
- Poor systemic perfusion - cyanosis
The best auscultation Site is the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border
(Aortic valve area)
It is typically: Harsh, systolic and may radiate to the carotid arteries
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Heart rate 46 beats per minute: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that slows conduction through the AV node and decreases heart rate. A heart rate below 50 bpm is considered bradycardia and may be exacerbated by diltiazem, increasing the risk of symptomatic hypotension, dizziness, or syncope. The nurse should hold the dose and notify the provider.
B. EKG shows atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response: Diltiazem is often prescribed to control ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation with RVR. In this context, the medication is appropriate, and the nurse would generally administer as ordered while monitoring vital signs and rhythm.
C. Client reports feeling palpitations and dizziness: While these symptoms warrant assessment, they are nonspecific. The nurse would evaluate for hemodynamic instability, but a documented bradycardia takes precedence as a reason to withhold the dose.
D. Blood pressure 198/102: Diltiazem can be used to lower elevated blood pressure in certain situations. Unless there is evidence of hypotension or other contraindications, elevated blood pressure alone is not a reason to hold the medication; in fact, the dose may help manage hypertension.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Possible hypovolemia: A decreased CVP indicates reduced pressure in the right atrium and central veins, often reflecting a low circulating blood volume. Causes can include hemorrhage, dehydration, or excessive diuretic use. This finding suggests the right ventricle is receiving less venous return, which can compromise cardiac output if not corrected.
B. Right ventricular failure: Right ventricular failure typically results in elevated CVP due to impaired emptying of the right ventricle and venous congestion. A decreased CVP is inconsistent with right ventricular failure, as the pressure in the central veins would be increased rather than reduced.
C. Possible hypervolemia: Hypervolemia is characterized by increased circulating blood volume, which raises venous return and CVP. A decreased CVP suggests the opposite condition, indicating low intravascular volume rather than excess fluid.
D. Left ventricular failure: Left ventricular failure leads to pulmonary congestion and increased pulmonary venous pressure, which may eventually raise right-sided pressures, resulting in elevated CVP. A decreased CVP does not indicate left ventricular failure and suggests the right side is underfilled rather than overloaded.
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