Janie is 20 years old with severe, prolonged 2 to 3 day migraines twice per month. She also has mild chronic tension headache (CDH). She has difficulty sleeping and is mildly anxious. She occasionally utilizes an inhaler for asthma. With only two migraines per month and mild CDH, a case could be made against prevention medication. However, with the severity and length of julie's migraines (4 to 6 total days of severe migraine per month), prophylactic medications are indicated. What medication would you expect the provider to prescribe?
Butorphanol
Ibuprofen
Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Ergotamine
The Correct Answer is C
Migraine prophylaxis is indicated when headache episodes are frequent, prolonged, or significantly impair daily functioning. Preventive therapy aims to reduce the frequency, severity, and duration of migraines rather than treat acute attacks. Medication selection is individualized based on comorbid conditions such as insomnia, anxiety, or chronic tension-type headaches.
Rationale:
A. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist-antagonist used for acute pain management, including severe migraine episodes, but it is not suitable for prophylaxis. Its use carries risks of dependence, sedation, and central nervous system depression. It does not address the underlying neurovascular mechanisms involved in migraine prevention.
B. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for acute migraine relief due to its inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis. While effective for mild to moderate attacks, it does not prevent the recurrence of migraines. Frequent use may also lead to medication-overuse headaches and gastrointestinal complications, making it inappropriate for prophylactic therapy.
C. Amitriptyline (Elavil) is a tricyclic antidepressant that is effective for migraine prevention, particularly in patients with comorbid insomnia and anxiety. It modulates serotonin and norepinephrine pathways involved in pain perception and central sensitization. Additionally, its sedative properties improve sleep quality, making it especially beneficial for patients with chronic tension headaches and sleep disturbances.
D. Ergotamine is a vasoconstrictive agent used in the acute treatment of migraine attacks, particularly when other therapies are ineffective. It works by stimulating serotonin receptors to reduce intracranial blood vessel dilation. However, it is not used for prophylaxis and carries risks such as rebound headaches and vascular complications with repeated use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Opioid tolerance develops with repeated use of medications such as Morphine, leading to a reduced response to the same dose over time. This occurs due to neuroadaptive changes at opioid receptors and downstream signaling pathways. As tolerance increases, higher doses are required to achieve the same therapeutic effect. However, tolerance develops unevenly across different opioid effects.
Rationale:
A. Increased respiratory depression is not expected with tolerance because patients typically develop tolerance to respiratory depressive effects over time. While respiratory depression is a major risk in opioid-naïve individuals, chronic users often require higher doses to produce the same effect. However, this does not eliminate risk, especially with dose escalation.
B. Increased euphoria is not associated with tolerance; instead, tolerance generally reduces the euphoric effects of opioids. Repeated exposure leads to diminished reward response, contributing to dose escalation in some individuals seeking the initial effect. The neurobiological adaptation reduces sensitivity to opioid-induced pleasure.
C. Decreased constipation is incorrect because tolerance develops poorly to gastrointestinal effects of opioids. Constipation persists due to continued reduced gastrointestinal motility from mu-receptor activation in the gut. Patients often require ongoing bowel regimens despite long-term opioid use.
D. Decreased analgesic effect is the hallmark of opioid tolerance. Over time, the same dose produces less pain relief due to receptor desensitization and downregulation. This necessitates higher doses or alternative pain management strategies to maintain adequate analgesia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Patients taking Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors may experience adverse effects such as sexual dysfunction, weight gain, and sedation due to increased serotonergic activity. When these side effects significantly affect quality of life, clinicians may consider switching to or augmenting with an antidepressant that has a more favorable side effect profile. Medication selection focuses on maintaining antidepressant efficacy while minimizing serotonergic sexual and metabolic effects.
Rationale:
A. Trazodone is primarily used for depression and insomnia due to its sedating properties. However, it can also cause drowsiness and does not reliably improve sexual dysfunction or weight gain. In some cases, it may even worsen sedation, making it less suitable.
B. Isocarboxazid is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used for treatment-resistant depression. It carries significant dietary and drug interaction risks and is not used to address SSRI-induced sexual dysfunction or weight gain. Its safety profile makes it a less practical option.
C. Imipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic side effects, sedation, and weight gain. It may also contribute to sexual dysfunction rather than improve it. Therefore, it does not address the patient’s primary concerns and may worsen them.
D. Bupropion is an appropriate alternative because it primarily affects dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake rather than serotonin. It is associated with fewer sexual side effects and is often weight-neutral or associated with weight loss. Additionally, it is less sedating, making it suitable for patients experiencing SSRI-induced fatigue and sexual dysfunction.
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