Patient data
The nurse begins client education and asks the client what potential asthma triggers may have been involved in her recent exacerbation. For each statement click to specify if the client has an understanding or no understanding of asthma triggers. Each row must have one option selected.
"My friend smoked cigarettes during the hike."
"I should have taken an extra dose of fluticasone- salmeterol."
"I should have eaten a snack halfway through the hike."
"I should have taken some allergy medications before going on the hike."
"I have been very stressed out lately and should work on stress management."
The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A"}}
Brief introduction:
Asthma management relies heavily on the client’s ability to identify and mitigate triggers that cause airway inflammation and bronchospasm. Common triggers include environmental allergens (pollen, dust), chemical irritants (tobacco smoke), physical factors (exercise, cold air), and physiological stressors (viral infections, emotional stress). Proper education also involves distinguishing between rescue medications, used for acute symptoms, and maintenance medications, which are used daily for long-term control.
Rationale:
- Secondhand smoke: Tobacco smoke is a well-documented primary irritant and asthma trigger that causes immediate airway constriction.
- Extra maintenance dose: Fluticasone/Salmeterol is a controller medication, not a rescue medication. Taking extra doses during an acute attack does not provide rapid bronchodilation and reflects a misunderstanding of medication roles.
- Snacking: While nutrition is important for general health, food intake (unless a specific food allergy exists) is not a direct trigger for asthma exacerbations.
- Allergy medications: Since the exacerbation occurred during a hike (likely exposure to pollen/environmental allergens), using antihistamines or allergy prophylaxis is a valid strategy for trigger management.
- Stress management: Emotional stress and high anxiety are physiological triggers that can induce or worsen bronchospasm in many asthma patients.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Brief introduction:
Acute dystonia is an extrapyramidal symptom characterized by involuntary, sustained muscle contractions resulting from dopamine D2 receptor blockade in the basal ganglia. Laryngeal spasm is a medical emergency that causes upper airway obstruction and respiratory distress. Rapid pharmacological reversal is mandatory to restore neuromuscular stability and ensure ventilatory patency for the affected client.
Rationale:
A. Intravenous administration of benztropine is the definitive treatment for life-threatening dystonic reactions. As a potent anticholinergic, it restores the neurochemical balance between dopamine and acetylcholine in the nigrostriatal pathway. The IV route is chosen for immediate onset to resolve the laryngeal spasm and prevent imminent asphyxiation.
B. PO administration of lorazepam is inappropriate for an acute airway crisis. While benzodiazepines have muscle-relaxant properties, the oral route is too slow to manage a laryngeal spasm effectively. Furthermore, lorazepam does not target the underlying cholinergic-dopaminergic imbalance responsible for the extrapyramidal symptoms as specifically as anticholinergics.
C. PO administration of divalproex is used primarily as a mood stabilizer or anticonvulsant. It works by increasing gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) levels but has no role in the emergency treatment of acute dystonia. Administering oral medications to a client with an active laryngeal spasm also poses a severe risk of aspiration.
D. IV administration of isotonic crystalloid fluid is indicated for volume resuscitation and hemodynamic stability. While maintaining intravenous access is vital, saline does not address the neuromuscular contraction affecting the larynx. The nurse must prioritize the administration of corrective medications rather than simple fluid replacement to resolve the respiratory emergency.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Minimal change nephrotic syndrome involves an idiopathic increase in glomerular permeability, specifically targeting the podocytes of the basement membrane. This pathology results in massive protein loss, leading to systemic hypoalbuminemia, which shifts fluid from the intravascular space into the interstitium, causing generalized edema. Early detection of a relapse relies on identifying the recurrence of basement membrane dysfunction before significant clinical symptoms such as severe anasarca or weight gain manifest.
Rationale:
A. Increased thirst is not a recognized early clinical indicator of a recurrence in nephrotic syndrome. While fluid shifts can affect perceived hydration, thirst is more commonly associated with diabetes mellitus or electrolyte imbalances. The primary monitoring focus for MCNS remains the urinary protein status rather than oral intake patterns.
B. Tachypnea may occur in late-stage relapse if pleural effusions or massive ascites develop, causing respiratory compromise. It is considered a secondary complication of severe fluid overload rather than a primary diagnostic sign of early disease activity. Monitoring should focus on the kidneys rather than respiratory rate during the initial stages of relapse.
C. A rounded face, often termed moon face, is a classic side effect of prolonged corticosteroid therapy used to treat the condition. This finding indicates a physiological response to the medication rather than a return of the disease process itself. It can mask the development of edema, making objective laboratory testing more critical.
D. Albuminuria is the most significant and early indicator that the nephrotic process has returned. Parents are often taught to monitor the child's urine daily using dipsticks to detect protein excretion before visible edema occurs. Identifying protein in the urine allows for prompt intervention with steroids to prevent a full-blown clinical relapse.
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