Review the documentation in the EHR and evaluate the most recent assessment findings for the 38-year-old client.
Match the finding of urine output and deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) with the appropriate status.
Urine output is within normal limits and DTRs are 2 plus.
Urine output is decreased and DTRs are brisk at 4 plus.
Urine output is increased and DTRs are absent at 0.
Urine output is stable and DTRs are diminished at 1 plus.
The Correct Answer is A
This scenario requires an understanding of magnesium sulfate toxicity and preeclampsia monitoring. Knowledge of renal function and neuromuscular irritability is essential to differentiate between therapeutic magnesium levels, normal physiological states, and life-threatening signs of hypermagnesemia or central nervous system depression.
Choice A rationale
Normal urine output exceeds 30 mL per hour, reflecting adequate renal perfusion and successful clearance of toxins. Deep tendon reflexes of 2 plus are considered an expected, normal clinical finding, indicating healthy neuromuscular communication and central nervous system balance.
Choice B rationale
Decreased urine output suggests renal insufficiency, potentially leading to magnesium accumulation. Brisk 4 plus reflexes signify neuromuscular irritability or hyperreflexia, which is a common finding in severe preeclampsia or impending eclampsia, requiring immediate medical intervention and blood pressure management.
Choice C rationale
Absent deep tendon reflexes of 0 are a classic sign of magnesium toxicity, where the cation blocks neuromuscular transmission. Increased urine output is atypical in toxicity scenarios, but absent reflexes mandate the immediate cessation of magnesium sulfate infusions.
Choice D rationale
Diminished 1 plus reflexes indicate slight sluggishness in the neuromuscular response. Stable urine output is positive, but any reduction in reflex response from baseline during magnesium therapy requires close monitoring to ensure the client is not progressing toward toxicity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
This clinical scenario describes shoulder dystocia indicated by the turtle sign. Management requires immediate obstetric maneuvers to resolve the obstruction. Knowledge of emergency protocols, including McRoberts maneuver and suprapubic pressure, is essential to prevent fetal asphyxia and maternal trauma during delivery.
Choice A rationale
Fundal pressure is strictly contraindicated in cases of shoulder dystocia because it can further impact the anterior fetal shoulder against the maternal symphysis pubis. This action increases the risk of uterine rupture and severe brachial plexus injury.
Choice B rationale
Suprapubic pressure helps dislodge the impacted anterior shoulder by pushing it under the maternal symphysis pubis. This manual maneuver decreases the fetal bisacromial diameter, allowing the shoulder to rotate and pass through the pelvic outlet during the delivery.
Choice C rationale
Flexing the thighs toward the ears, known as the McRoberts maneuver, flattens the sacral promontory and increases the pelvic inlet diameter. This postural change facilitates the passage of the fetal shoulder and is often the first-line intervention.
Choice D rationale
Shoulder dystocia is a high-risk obstetric emergency that necessitates a multidisciplinary team approach. Calling for help ensures that neonatal resuscitation teams, anesthesia, and additional nursing staff are available to assist with complex maneuvers and provide immediate care.
Choice E rationale
While a cesarean birth is a major surgical procedure, it is typically not the immediate step once the head is delivered. Rescuers first attempt maneuvers to deliver the body vaginally, as reversing the delivery process is extremely difficult and dangerous.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The nurse must identify signs of estrogen-related thromboembolism. Estrogen increases clotting factor synthesis, raising the risk for pulmonary embolism. Recognizing cardiovascular distress and prioritizing urgent medical intervention is essential when assessing clients on hormonal therapy experiencing dyspnea or chest pain.
Choice A rationale
Shortness of breath and chest pain are never considered expected side effects of oral contraceptives. These symptoms indicate pulmonary embolism or myocardial infarction, requiring immediate medical evaluation rather than simple monitoring of common hormonal reactions.
Choice B rationale
Oral contraceptives increase the risk of deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Sudden chest pain and dyspnea suggest a life-threatening clot. The client needs emergency care to stabilize respiratory function and initiate anticoagulation therapy immediately.
Choice C rationale
Waiting until the next day is dangerous because pulmonary embolism can cause rapid respiratory failure or death. While stopping the medication is necessary, the acute physical symptoms require higher acuity care than an outpatient clinic appointment.
Choice D rationale
Advising the client to continue the medication is incorrect and potentially fatal. Estrogen-containing pills exacerbate hypercoagulability. Ignoring signs of chest pain and dyspnea delays life-saving treatment for a likely pulmonary or cardiac vascular obstruction.
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