The client is inquiring to the health care provider about a pelvis that is rounded, forward-facing, with a wide pubic arch, and ideal for childbirth.
Which of the following describes this pelvic type?
Anthropoid pelvis.
Gynecoid pelvis.
Android pelvis.
Platypelloid pelvis.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
The Anthropoid pelvis is characterized by an oval inlet with a greater anteroposterior diameter than the transverse diameter. While a variant of the female pelvis, it is less ideal for childbirth compared to the gynecoid type because its shape can sometimes lead to a persistent occiput posterior position, making the labor process potentially longer and more difficult.
Choice B rationale
The Gynecoid pelvis is considered the classic female pelvis and is the most common and most favorable for vaginal delivery. It possesses a rounded inlet, a wide and deep posterior segment, a wide pubic arch (usually >90°), and walls that are straight. This structure allows the fetal head to easily descend and rotate through the birth canal, making it ideal for childbirth.
Choice C rationale
The Android pelvis, typically considered the male pelvis type, has a characteristic heart-shaped or triangular inlet and a narrow pubic arch. Its structure is less favorable for labor as the contracted planes can impede the fetal head's descent and rotation, often leading to a need for operative delivery or a cesarean section due to pelvic disproportion.
Choice D rationale
The Platypelloid pelvis is characterized by a distinctive flat, oval shape with a narrow anteroposterior diameter and a widened transverse diameter. This shape is the least common and is considered the least favorable for vaginal birth because the severely restricted anteroposterior space often prevents the fetal head from entering the pelvis in the optimal transverse or oblique position, often requiring a cesarean section.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Epidural anesthesia is a highly effective pharmacologic pain management option for labor, but it is typically offered later in the active phase of labor or upon request. At 3 cm dilation, the client is in the early (latent) phase of the first stage of labor. While the client can receive it, the initial nursing priority is often to promote comfort and coping with non-pharmacologic measures before resorting to invasive procedures.
Choice B rationale
The client is in the early (latent) phase of the first stage of labor, defined as 0-5 cm cervical dilation and 0-40% effacement. This phase is characterized by milder, less frequent contractions, and the client is typically alert and excited. The nursing priority is to encourage non-pharmacologic coping strategies like ambulation, hydrotherapy, breathing techniques, and position changes, which promote comfort, manage pain, and encourage labor progression before the active phase.
Choice C rationale
Narcotic analgesia (opioids) can be used for pain relief in early labor, but they can cause fetal/neonatal respiratory depression, maternal drowsiness, and potential nausea. Given the client is at 3 cm, this is the latent phase, and non-pharmacologic methods are typically encouraged first. Pharmacologic agents are often reserved for when non-pharmacologic methods are insufficient or the client enters the active phase (6 cm or more).
Choice D rationale
A client in active labor, particularly one receiving analgesia, is at risk of aspiration should an emergency Cesarean section be required under general anesthesia. Therefore, generally, clients are kept NPO (nothing by mouth) except for small amounts of clear liquids or ice chips. Offering a full breakfast is contraindicated due to the risk of aspiration and is not a priority for comfort or labor management.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Transmission of Toxoplasma gondii is typically not associated with a prolonged rupture of membranes. Although ascending infection from the vagina can occur with other pathogens, Toxoplasma is generally transmitted hematogenously. Prolonged rupture of membranes primarily raises the risk for bacterial chorioamnionitis and subsequent neonatal sepsis, not congenital toxoplasmosis. The primary risk time is in utero.
Choice B rationale
Postpartum transmission through infected droplets is characteristic of respiratory viruses, like influenza or respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), not Toxoplasma gondii. Congenital toxoplasmosis occurs when the mother acquires the infection during pregnancy, leading to parasitemia and subsequent transplacental spread to the fetus, not via postnatal droplet spread.
Choice C rationale
Transmission of Toxoplasma gondii during the birth process as the fetus moves through the vaginal canal is the route for organisms like Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) or Group B Streptococcus (GBS). Congenital toxoplasmosis is an intrauterine infection, resulting from the trophozoite form crossing the placenta from a recently infected, parasitemic mother.
Choice D rationale
Toxoplasmosis is classically transmitted in utero via the placenta. If a non-immune mother acquires the primary infection with Toxoplasma gondii during pregnancy, the tachyzoites can cross the placental barrier and infect the fetus, causing congenital toxoplasmosis, which can lead to severe neurologic and ocular defects.
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